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In the following position Black played...h6 under the impression that this wins White's Bishop. This reasoning seems convincing, as a move of the menaced Bishop will lose the White Queen. How does White's aggressively posted Rook at g3 spoils this plausible plan?
(Notes by Fred Reinfeld)
Same question as Askham: Why not windmill the last pawn on a7?
This was from Carlos Torre , the best mexican player of all time.
Benws, you are correct. Black didn't just moved ...h6, plus, I didn't even know who the players were, so I went ahead and reworded the introduction and added the players' names to the diagram. Thanks for pointing that out.
ah, i remember this one. Torre vs Lasker, right? pretty good sac.
but one thing-black's last move was not ...h6. go over the game and you will see that torre played a series of moves to get the black queen unguarded.
Opens up the file with a2 unguarded, I suppose. Very good windmill though. xD
Black would then also take the white a pawn, activating black's rook for an even material trade. Black still has an inactive rook this way.
Couldn't white have really sealed the deal by taking the a-pawn as well during the windmill tactic?
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by kenytiger 5 years ago
Underestimating your Opponent's Threats (3)
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