hi, i am quite new in opening theory. so my questions might sound really stupid. i apologize for that. now my questions: 1. in the evans gambit, if black plays 4...Nxb4 instead of 4...Bxb4, what should be white's answer? is that a bad move by black? why? or why not? 2. in the ruy lopez, what if black plays 4...b5 immediately after 1. e4 e5; 2. Nf3 Nc6; 3. Bb5 a6; 4. Ba4 what should the white's answer be after he plays 5. Bb3 ? i mean how should he approach the game after 4...b5 ?
Hi Murshid
In the Evans gambit after 1.e4 e5 2.Nf3 Nc6 3.Bc4 Bc5 4.b4 Nxb4? 5.c3 Nc6 6.d4 white gains a large lead in development and a strong pawn centre because he is attacking the bishop still on c5.
Compare this to 1.e4 e5 2.Nf3 Nc6 3.Bc4 Bc5 4.b4 Bxb4 5.c3 Ba5 6.d4 - in this position white isn't attacking the bishop and so black essentially has an extra move to develop compared to the line above.
In the Ruy Lopez after 1.e4 e5 2.Nf3 Nc6 3.Bb5 a6 4.Ba4 b5 5.Bb3 whites plan (depending on blacks moves of course) will probably be along the lines of castling, playing Re1, c3, h3 and d4 - basically trying to claim a superior pawn centre.
In a way - white is also trying to create a pawn centre in the Evans gambit but of course he has to sacrifice a pawn to do so. The Ruy Lopez isn't as sharp, but is far superior as is evidenced by the fact that most strong players play the Lopez (assuming they open 1.e4) and very few play the Evans Gambit.
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