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all pieces used.
After 2.Kf1 Rd8, why isn't Qxa6 played?
I don't understand....
The real question is why 1... Kf1 instead of 1... Be3
after 1...Be3 2.Qxd3 ...cxd3 3.Bxe3+ and same result: white lose his bishop.
If 1....Be3, then 2.Qxd3 e2xd3 3. Bxe3 so either way black gets a bishop.
3. Qxa6 Rd1#
That's why it's not played.
coz.. Qxa6 will make Black move Rd1 and checkmate...
cause Rd8++!!!
Rd1...;)D
3. Qax6 Rd1#
Rd1#
y did the black queen not take the white queen on the2nd move,otherwise on the 3rd move the white queen could take the black queen.
ok good answer
After white has moved the bishop wpuldnt it be better to move the queen one step up and so paralyze the king.
What can he do after that? Thats not in our your gain?
'cause Rd8 mates
simple Rd1#
1. ....Kf1 2. Qxd3 exd3 3. Bxe3
I missed the first move with the bishop. Excellent puzzle. It put me to the test. Thanks much.
I'm still thinking...
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