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5th April 2008, 06:25pm
#1
by Nereus
United States
Member Since: Jan 2008
Member Points: 56

Pick a # between 1-10. (Don't tell me)

Double it

Add 6

Cut it into half

Subtract it from the # you started with

Is your answer 3?

I can do this all day long :)


5th April 2008, 06:31pm
#2
by Nereus
United States
Member Since: Jan 2008
Member Points: 56

Ask me others if u want

 


5th April 2008, 07:35pm
#3
by Manipulated
Montreal Canada
Member Since: Dec 2007
Member Points: 737

Obviously... =)

 Your number = #

(2# + 6 )/2 -# =

 #+3 - #=

=3 

You could choose any number (that includes numbers like pi or square root of 2 or even a+bi (complex numbers))

 Here is one a little harder.

Take any natural number (from 1 to infinity).

 1. Divide this number by 2 until you get an odd number, go to step 2.

2. multiply by 3 and add 1

Repeat step 1 

 In the end you will always get the same number, what is it?


5th April 2008, 08:41pm
#4
by itaibn
Toronto, Ontario Canada
Member Since: Sep 2007
Member Points: 366
Manipulated wrote:

Obviously... =)

 Your number = #

(2# + 6 )/2 -# =

 #+3 - #=

=3 

You could choose any number (that includes numbers like pi or square root of 2 or even a+bi (complex numbers))

 Here is one a little harder.

Take any natural number (from 1 to infinity).

 1. Divide this number by 2 until you get an odd number, go to step 2.

2. multiply by 3 and add 1

Repeat step 1 

 In the end you will always get the same number, what is it?


It is conjectured that you will always eventually get to 4, but it yet to be proven. A paticularly long example of is 27, which gets up to the thousands before reaching 4.


5th April 2008, 08:59pm
#5
by Manipulated
Montreal Canada
Member Since: Dec 2007
Member Points: 737

I see where you are coming from, if you actually stop at step 2, you will end up to 4, but since 4 is divisible by 2, twice, you will get back to 1. I prefer to say it ends at 1.

Yes 27 will get pretty high numbers before it actually gets to 1 (or 4).  

 


 

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