13251 Players currently online!
Man vs. Machine - good luck!
Turn-based games at any time!
Vote for the best move to win!
Do you have what it takes?
Sharpen your tactical vision!
Get advice and game insights!
Learn from top players & pros!
View millions of master games!
Your virtual chess coach!
Perfect your opening moves!
Test your skills vs. computer!
Find the right private coach!
Can you solve it each day?
Bring it all together!
Beginners, start here!
Make friends & play team games!
News from the world of chess!
Search all Chess.com members!
Find local clubs & events!
Who's the best of your friends?
Read what members are saying!
I recently started reading Chess Fundamentals, by J.R. Capablanca. As an aside, I am reading it with the e+Chess Books app for iPad and iPhone, and the app is truly amazing. It's free, and comes with a free copy of Capa's book. But, I digress. Back to the point of my post.
In Chapter 3, Capa provides an example of a game where the winning plan consisted of relinquishing the initiative to obtain a material advantage, then weathering the storm, and then finally pressing the material advantage once the opponent's initiative has run out. This is all well and good. It makes sense. But I am stumbling on Capa's reasoning of how he decided on that plan at the critical juncture.
The game is Capablanca-Janowski, Havana International Masters Tournament, 1913. After 1.e4 e5 2.Nf3 Nc6 3.Bb5 Nf6 4.0-0 d6 5.Bxc6+ bxc6 6.d4 Be7 7.Nc3 Nd7 8.dxe5 dxe5 9.Qe2 0-0 10.Rd1 Bd6 11.Bg5 Qe8 12.Nh4, black plays g6, offering the exchange (e.g., Bh6 and Black's f8 rook can't move) in order to gain time and to obtain an attack. Capa says: "Without considering at all whether or not such a course was justified on the part of Black, it is evident that as far as White is concerned there is only one thing to do, viz., to win the exchange and prepare to weather the storm. Then, once it is passed, to act quickly with all forces to derive the benefit of numerical superiority."
What confuses me is the first part - without considering whether or not such a course was justified for Black. If Black's course was justified, wouldn't following it result in a loss for White? Or is Capa saying that if Black's course was justified, Black will win regardless of what you do, so you may as well fight it out with the plusses Black is offering? I've just never heard or seen a high level chess player say that you should do something without considering whether the opponent's course of action will ultimately result in you losing. Perhaps someone more experienced can shed some light on what Capa meant.
I'd guess he considered all other moves (i.e not taking the exchange) weaker, which is logically independent of the question whether Black's plan is justified.
Justified here means Black has sufficient compensation for the exchange.
pfren, thanks for your reply, but still why should white not consider whether black has sufficient compensation before deciding to accept the offer of the exchange?
Not if all other moves are weaker anyway.
Black is fine if white does not accept the sacrifice.
Is 29. Bxf3 a good move, or blunder by my opponent?
by chessmicky a few minutes ago
How Many Chess Sets Do You Own?
by cornbeefhashvili 3 minutes ago
What would be the rating of a top chess player in the late 1800s today
by HueyWilliams 5 minutes ago
by aggressivesociopath 5 minutes ago
one word to describe chess.com crowd
by rollingrook5 6 minutes ago
what are the funnest thing u can say during a chess game
by fltsrymy 6 minutes ago
Have you ever had an annoying opponent?
by HueyWilliams 8 minutes ago
sicilian defense as a main weapon
by ipcress12 10 minutes ago
Not letting me castle.
by g-man15 10 minutes ago
3/1/2015 - Compelled To Lose
by josephfremont2 11 minutes ago
Why Join | Chess Topics |
Help & Support |
© 2015 Chess.com
• Chess - English
We are working hard to make Chess.com available in over 70 languages. Check back over the year as we develop the technology to add more, and we will try our best to notify you when your language is ready for translating!