solved it,
piece of cacke
silentfilmstar13 wrote: Why was h3 not possible on Black's last move?
It's possible but it doesn't matter, the mate still happens after black moves his pawn to h3
another one of those easier retro-problems disguised as mate-in-n --- yawn.
There are some real difficult ones of this kind... [of course the computer can solve it if you give it the right fen ;) ] the diagram has the wrong fen - if you click the pgn/fen dropdown box , then THAT fen has no mate-in-2!
Oh piotr has covered that in his post...
i solved it. pretty easy.
I think the solution is similar to that of the problem "mate in one". Don't forget anything "en passant"
i can see it
Quite enjoyable!
Thank you for posting the problem!
bobito75 wrote: Salam Let thing with us ... because i don't solve it ... but please if any Genius solve it don't write the solution now ... give more time to thinking write only " i solved " and thanks White to play and mate in two moves
Salam
Let thing with us ... because i don't solve it ...
but please if any Genius solve it don't write the solution now ... give more time to thinking
write only " i solved "
and thanks
White to play and mate in two moves
a wrong FEN position with the title "computers can't solve it"?
Yeah yeah, we know humans are smarter...
solved it fast... This is a sweet mate. Pretty simple, don't know why the computer couldn't solve it.
einstein_69101 wrote: I see the solution. This has a similiar idea the other problem the computer couldn't solve. The key hint is to think about what was blacks last move. It is possible to find out just by looking at this setup. I can provide the solution if people want me to later. :)
I admit, I didn't see it until I saw this comment.
oeteg wrote: All this talk about "en pasant"... This is another option: 1. Bc2 h2 (1... h5 2. Bxh7#) 2. Bxh7# Nice and easy
All this talk about "en pasant"...
This is another option:
1. Bc2 h2 (1... h5 2. Bxh7#) 2. Bxh7#
Nice and easy
Your option doesn't work because Black plays 1. ...fxe6
i think there is another problem. what if the c5 pawn had originally been on c7 and had then taken a pawn on d6, and right before the position presented before us, had taken a pawn that could hypothetically be on c5. This would then prevent the en passant and therefore prevent the mate in 2 unless we are told the last move was pawn to c5
i cant understand??????
Damn En Passant... though now it makes sense! Yay, got it!
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