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However, "Mate in one move" can mean either 1 or 2 plies. It's as correct as a joke problem can be.
If the joke is based on non-chess terminology, in other words, a changed definition of a move in chess, then yes.
Mate in one is always a one ply, because a player cannot mate himself.
In a retro, it may black to move and every move he has falls into a mate. 2 ply for a mate in one.
not much of a problem...
I bet you have never seen one.
nobody says 'half-move,' 'half-move' is incorrect. this is a 'mate in one' i.e. 'one move' BigDogg, 50 move rule refers to 50 moves on both sides. they use that term to place emphasis on the 50th move for a player 'white or black' to claim a drawn position. if they said '100 move rule,' it wouldn't reference a particular person's 50th move.
'half-move,' however is non-sensical. it is mate in 1, not mate in .5 moves. half-move would reference the opponent's move after he has already been checkmated, which obviously makes no sense.
Sorry, your post is not coherent enough for a reply.
well that was a reply. i think what is really going on is that you don't have a good enough reply or won't admit you are wrong. but that is a great strategy to save your ego ;) Feel free to ask me to clarify specific sections, but i know you won't Instead just pretend my post made absolutely no sense or that you are 10 times smarter than me.
1. e4 Nf6 2.Nf3 Ng8 3.Ng5 Nf6 4.Qf3 Ng8 5.Bc4: Now it is black to play and mate in 2 (plies). A very deep problem! I bet you cannot solve it. lol
On the other hand, if you're talking about self mate problems, I've seen plenty of those.
"No" would have saved you so much typing. :)
A swear finish castling checkmate
It's fine. I'm the one of the fastest! U should check out my coaching thread. Typed that up that first post in just a few minutes.
If it's going to be 0-0 as whites move the question is what the last black's move was???
1600 at last!
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