# Mate in 2.....Huh?

• 4 years ago · Quote · #1

Hello, this is omglolbbqpizza again, the outrageous puzzle solver.

I haven't made or found any puzzles, but I did find this puzzle in a book.

When you think you've seen everything....see this puzzle.

Is there really a mate in two? If you did 1. Kg1? (doing Qf2#) then 1...h2+! and mate in two is lost.

Very helpful tip: You've saw my puzzles before, and this one is no exception.

• 4 years ago · Quote · #2

yeah yeah nice brains you,ve got....reverse castles.......

• 4 years ago · Quote · #3

The only 2-move mate I can see here is...

1 Rf1+  Kxg3  2 Qf2#

...but that's not forced (Black can move his king to e3 instead of taking the pawn).

• 4 years ago · Quote · #4
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• 4 years ago · Quote · #5

That may be a typo in the book.  I don't think there is a mate in 2 (forced moves) for this puzzle.  There are a couple of mate in 3.

Either way, White wins.

• 4 years ago · Quote · #6

@jakeryan150482: But, if not forced mate counts, black also has mate in 2

• 4 years ago · Quote · #7

Just move the king to h2 , and after queen f5 , and white wons

• 4 years ago · Quote · #8
Moyses1996 wrote:

Just move the king to h2 , and after queen f5 , and white wons

And black's move is??

• 4 years ago · Quote · #9

1 Kh2 and it's (stale)mate in one

• 4 years ago · Quote · #10

Reverse castles is like 1. O-O with the king ending on f1 and the rook on g1?

• 4 years ago · Quote · #11

You do not have to do a reverse caste. Just move the king to G1, black has to take pawn, move queen to F2

• 4 years ago · Quote · #12

Yes, the correct move is 1 0-0. It's a really ridiculous problem where White claims that the pieces are placed, and there has been no previous play. Therefore, he can castle. Then 2 Qe2# on the next move mates.

And no, 1 Kg1 fails to 1...h2+! preventing mate on the next move.

• 4 years ago · Quote · #13
benws wrote:

Yes, the correct move is 1 0-0.

Rather, reverse castles (like heinzie said).

• 4 years ago · Quote · #14
kapjames wrote:

You do not have to do a reverse caste. Just move the king to G1, black has to take pawn, move queen to F2

After 1.Kg1, Black is not forced into 1...Kxg6 2.Qf2#.  So, 1.Kg1 h2+ cooks a mate in 2.

• 4 years ago · Quote · #15

Is it not that the Rules of Chess has no provision for so-called "Reverse Castling". Therefore, 1.0-0 is an illegal move is it not.

• 4 years ago · Quote · #16

Btw I hate stupid crap like that.  You spend a whole bunch of time trying to solve something, finally throw your hands up in the air, only to be told that it all gets done with pixie dust.

It's like having somebody set up the position wrong on you.

• 4 years ago · Quote · #17
benws wrote:

Yes, the correct move is 1 0-0. It's a really ridiculous problem where White claims that the pieces are placed, and there has been no previous play.

Even more ridiculous is that we have to just assume it's the white-king-starts-on-h1 chess variation!  I mean, really, they ought to give us that information so we can deduce that reverse castling is the correct response.

• 4 years ago · Quote · #18

The answer is... Reverse Castle 0-0! (forced mate next move!) Actually, the whole puzzle is a joke.

I couldn't beleive when I shared it to my freinds, they couldn't solve it.

• 4 years ago · Quote · #19

As I said, it is clearly a mate in one.

• 4 years ago · Quote · #20
kapjames wrote:

You do not have to do a reverse caste. Just move the king to G1, black has to take pawn, move queen to F2

This looks right.  No reverse castling, strange assumptions, or anything else necessary.