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9th February 2010, 08:03pm
#1
by Lebeast
Lancaster United States
Member Since: May 2009
Member Points: 620
[COMMENT DELETED]
9th February 2010, 08:11pm
#2
by thesexyknight
West Lafayette, Indiana United States
Member Since: Nov 2009
Member Points: 1262

Um. You need to know the speed of the piano to calculate the Newtons applied. Also, you can push something down an incline. You can push something down a declined though! Otherwise I'd solve this in a heartbeat.

9th February 2010, 08:29pm
#3
by rgrizzard
Austin, TX United States
Member Since: Dec 2007
Member Points: 214

If you neglect friction, the piano will accelerate down the ramp.  Without the man pushing, there is a force of gravity, wich is directed downward, and you divide this into perpindicular components, one of which is normal to the surface of the ramp.  The other force is the normal force of the ramp acting on the piano, which is equal and opposite to the component of the force of gravity that is directed normally into the ramp.  The net force is the component of gravity going down the ramp (I think it would be m*g*sin(10.4 degrees)).  If the piano is sliding at constant speed, there is NO NET FORCE acting on it, so the man's force on the piano must be equal and opposite to this force.  So, I think the answer is the man is pushing UP the ramp, with a force equal to 160*9.8*sin(10.4).

13th February 2010, 02:04pm
#4
by yue5000
Freeport Bahamas
Member Since: Aug 2008
Member Points: 1069

hmm...it -would- be dangerous to push a piano down a fictionless ramp,

Even if its only 10.4^\circ :p

 

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