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Certainly 3. Qg2 is a better try. It breaks the pin, and if 3...Nf4, forking queen and rook, then 4. Rd8+ wins the queen. What would be the continuation after 3. Qg2?
Hmm, my first thought too. But after Qg2, Qb1+, forces Qg1, followed by Qe4+ capturesthe rook, if the queen goes to g2 to stop, you can just take the queen followed by Nf4+ forking rook and king
After black's check on Nf1+, ..... white will be ahead on one pawn (a passed one). White has one bishop and black has one knight. White is winning. :)
Yes. Thank you. Rather simple isn't it.
I started to look at 3...Qb1+ but didn't follow through. This again demonstrates my weakness in calculation.
" Hold on just a sec, but what if black plays nf1 next move."
Yeah, all I see is black knight forks king and queen, king moves, knight takes queen, king can take knight and loose bishop or save the bishop. Then it's black rook and knight against white bishop and knight. Or, if king takes black knight, pawn takes white bishop, and it's now black rook against white knight. Black comes out on top in both. Can anyone explain a way this WOULDN'T happen?
hard but it was nice...
First I did Qxh6!
But this time It did not work!
very bad so horse mate
sorry for chess horse continiue and white mat
very very bad
mohsen_chess2012 (comments #'s 55 - 61).... have you decided what you want to say ? ( كنت قد قررت ما كنت أريد أن أقول )
not a good solution, on next move white queen is in danger.
Could someone enlighten me, I dont understand why black queen would take in f6?