Neat. I also see no difference in the positions. Perhaps if the second game had continued as the first Palliser would have commented f5 was bad. I always thought f5 was generally bad if White could occupy e4 with a knight after the break, but if Black could recapture with the pawn and keep the center f5 was generally good, like both of these examples. I will be interested too to see what stronger players think of these positions as I always this was a good way to fight as Black. Is White really much better in the first diagram after catpures and Nf6 or an immediate Nf6? ... if so, how about 14... exf4 with the idea of occupying the e5 square? Does that put too many holes in Black's position?
(I play the Czech Benoni but I play the "modern" lines (5... Nbd7-f8-g6-eventually eyeing f4) which are also covered in that book by a slightly different move order. The main reason to delay Be7 is to allow transpositions to the KID if White plays g3 or something.)
Hi everyone,
I am currently reading "How to play against 1.d4" by British IM Richard Palliser based on the Czech Benoni defense from Black's point of view, and even though the Czech Benoni is supposed to be an easy-to-learn defense without too much theory I have realized that actually there is a bunch of nuances such as the move order which makes a certain move good or bad depending on when you do it. This can be said of many openings but here (and in many other Indian defenses) where Black counters with a pawn lever such as f7-f5 or c7-c5 the timing is crucial.
This said I have been surprised a couple of times where Palliser mentions that the move is premature or bad, and then in another example in the exact same position (or slightly different but not relevant to the move in question) he says that the move is good. Let me show you an example:
In this example above Palliser mentions that f5 "is still premature". Now to the next position:
Here however he states that "Black can safely reply f5". I see no difference except an additional move from both players (White's Rb1 and Black's Kh8) which I do not think they have something to do with the move f7-f5 being discussed here.
Am I missing something here? Is there any expert out there on this opening that can explain the nuance of this move here? Why is it a bad move in the first example and a good move in the second one?
I am getting really confused and frustrated, and I am about to drop this defense because I do not really get to understand the logic behind this f7-f5 break.
Thanks a lot in advance.