Can't you just use l'Hopital? .. Differentiate the top and the bottom independently, by this you get (sin(x)/1) .. then you insert the limit .. by which you get 0/1 = 0 ..
quick question

hmm.. totally different story, now that you have changed the whole expression!!
Well, and then again.. probably the same story, just for the new expression, where you may have to use the rule twice..
ok now its right but we are supposed to use the fact that the limit of theta approaching 0 of sin(theta)/theta=1 or that the limit of theta approaching 0 of (1-cos(theta))/theta =0
ok now its right but we are supposed to use the fact that the limit of theta approaching 0 of sin(theta)/theta=1 or that the limit of theta approaching 0 of (1-cos(theta))/theta =0
we are supposed to use this not talyor expansion I think, isnt there a trick using trig identies and basic liimit laws

Well since they are told that "sin(theta)/theta=1" for theta approaching 0, I guess they can rearrange it to be sin(theta)=theta for theta approaching 0 .. no need to talk about taylor approx. or anything =) ..
evaluate
(all the limits are approaching 0 couldnt get the zeros to show for some reason)
I know this is proly really easy but can some one help me out I am tutoring this girl in calc and have forgotten how to do this!! and she is paying me $25 an hour. I am meeting her in like 8 hours if some one can tell me the trick I would appreciate it :D