How did Francis Anquandah get the IM title as a 1960 player?

It's amazing how there are more than 40 comments and NOBODY here understands how these things work. Each region is broken into zones and holds subzonal tournaments. If you get clear first in a subzonal, you are awarded the IM title, regardless of the strength of the field. It's as simple as that. All regions have the ability to submit winners of these tournaments to FIDE as candidates for the title. If you score 50% you earn an FM title. I am not in agreement with this policy, but nevertheless, this is a FIDE rule. It has nothing to do with "affirmative action" or trying to do something nefarious. It is a FIDE regulation.

That answer was provided in post 4.

FIDE is to blame for Fischer quitted playing chess not only due to his demand rejected by FIDE in 1972 but since 1960-1970 Fischer often had a conflict with FiDE that made Fischer retired and came back again until his final retirement in 1972 and the WCC in 1985 again FIDE made a ridiculous rule that gave Kasparov advantage that he was about to lose but somehow survived, imagine Karpov led score 4.o but however he lost his crown and Carlsen need only slight margin 1+ is enough for him to mantain his crown