Obviously ignoring definitions in common dictionaries, that do not nor can include all the specific and technical uses of some words, I think that the following is a very good example of how "any opposition" is considered in our context. In fact, the authors use just van den Herik's (cited in the references) definition of weakly solved, explaining later its meaning:
"Weakly solved means a strategy [ . . . ] has been determined for the initial position
to achieve the game-theoretic value against any opposition. [ . . . ]
In terms of prunings in branch and bound tree search, a sound pruning condition when solving a weaker solution concept may not hold in stronger ones. This is caused by the removal of the assumption of optimal/perfect plays when dealing with stronger solution concepts. For example in alpha-beta prunings, when the min player obtains an A-costs which is lower than the lb (i.e. max player's last found best), we cannot immediately backtrack if we want to tackle weakly solved solutions, where we assume the max player is the adversary. The reason behind is that we cannot assume the max player must play a perfect move. We have to consider all moves for the max player. The situation is similar if we assume the min player is the adversary." (emphasis mine)
@MARattigan, I can understand your point about using that definition (e. g. a perfect strategy to gain... a loss?). There is no problem if we consider that if the game is, let's say, a win for White, it has to be proven that White can actually win (the strategy must not work only for the losing side). But indeed, other ways to state the concept may be clearer.
#2706
"No, your stated plans do not involve "weakly solving" chess (PROVING its value)."
++ Yes, my plans involve weakly solving chess i.e. proving,
just like done for Checkers and Losing Chess.
ok, so that means you include a proof that black can achieve the optimal result against the move 1. a4
"1. a4 (which may be an optimal first move for white. Or may not)."
++ I use knowledge about chess to select the moves 1 e4, 1 d4, 1 c4, 1 Nf3 to be superior compared to 1 a4, and thus to select the moves accordingly. 1 e4, 1 d4, 1 c4, 1 Nf3 oppose to the draw, 1 a4 does not.
So you think it is a proof that black can obtain the optimal result against the move 1. a4 to say "knowledge about chess means 1.e4 is superior to 1. a4".
No, it is not. Check with anyone who has a clue!