Just to check, is there a single person (other than @Optimissed) who bizarrely thinks that the fact that general theorems about games of the class to which chess belongs applies to chess is "inductive" rather than a logical deduction?
If there is, I would politely advise them to get a better understanding of the difference between inductive and deductive reasoning. Any reputable source will do. (I assume that @Optimissed himself is too pig-headed to take that advice, so is doomed to remain wrong. I wish I could be more optimistic ).
Ummmm weird!
It's the Paranoid Kid!
You got the weird part right, sort of.