I need to talk to some people here. After all, I'm given to magical thinking and this is the second time I've seen it mentioned, recently, as if it's something to be laughed at. OK, so I accept it's something to be laughed at but the only objection anyone should have against magical thinking would be because they assume it doesn't work and that therefore the magical thinker is retarded.
But what if it works?
I'm not laughing, there's just an irreconcilable difference between the scientific brain and the magical/superstitious thinker. For an excruciating illustration of this I recommend the video below. It does "work" evolutionarily. I think it's possible a majority of people are given to committed superstition which suggests it was selected for evolutionarily, probably because it has a survival advantage.
I disagree with you. Why, for instance, do you suppose that magical thinking can't be approached in a scientific manner? It isn't irreconcilable but there tends to be a bias against reconciliation. I would say especially from logical-positivists.
I was a hidebound logical positivist at the age of 17. Around the age of 18, a girlfriend, whom I was in love with, persuaded me to deliberately try to think magically. I took a bit of persuading but eventually I agreed and I just did a couple of experiments which basically changed my life completely. I learned that we can use our minds in ways that some people don't believe is possible. And I learned or taught myself how to do it.

Why wouldn't Magnus quit the tournament before he lost to Hans?
Why wouldn't Magnus resign the games against Hans before he lost to Hans?
The only difference in Magnus's actions before and after he decided to call out Hans was a fair and square loss when he had the white pieces.
The only variable between Magnus deciding to call out Hans or not was him losing. That's it.
Ask yourself if Magnus would have thrown a hissy fit against Hans if he would have beat him. If the answer is 'no', then that tells you everything you need to know.
Again, your logic is flawed because you are stating with the conclusion and trying to backfill it.
Magnus played Hans in the FTX Crypto Cup 2 weeks prior to the Sinquefield Cup. Hans beat him with the black pieces in that event (and proceeded to lose the next 3 games to lose the match). If you look at that event, you'll see a very odd pattern: Hans played 1 game in each match with a T3 score of 100% in 5 matches (including the one with Duda before the power went out). So, why would Magnus not have an issue playing him in that event (where Magnus was one of the organizers) and yet have a problem with him 2 weeks later? Did you ever stop to consider that? Or is your knowledge of chess history start in September 2022?