True or False Chess is a Draw with Best Play from Both Sides

Sort:
Elroch
tygxc wrote:

#9657
"This ought to be enough to convince anyone that our intuition cannot be trusted and that heuristics from regular play are irrelevant."
++ Yes, that is right, there exist 5-men, 6-men, 7-men, and 8-men positions won in > 50 moves.
However, there is no proof that any of those positions can be reached from the initial position with best play from both sides.

As always, your thinking is that of a chess player, not a game theorist, and is simply inappropriate. You have this back to front. When you want to PROVE a result (such as solving a game like checkers or chess), you can't rely on the absurd reasoning that if you don't know a possibility is relevant you can ignore it.
There is evidence of the contrary. In ICCF correspondence players may claim a win (even if it exceeds 50 or 75 moves without capture or pawn move) or a draw  based on the 7-men endgame table base. Such 7-men endgame table base win claims do not happen, 7-men endgame table base draw claims happen in 10% of drawn games. ICCF games end in draws in 39 moves average, 74% by agreement, 16% by 3-fold repetition, and 10% by 7-men endgame table base draw claim. Over the last 10 years the draw rate has gone up from 63% to 93%.

I thought maybe you were going to eventually get to a point that was relevant, but you didn't. Actually, I am kidding, I never thought you would.

A sample of a few thousand games between imperfect players could never be reliable. It could be a good indication of a statistic influenced by a large fraction of the population.  It is obviously worthless as an indication of something that might occur say one in a trillion times. Your claims are even more extreme than that, since you are saying there is no example in what is surely over 10^20 positions relevant to a solution of chess.

 

tygxc

#9672

"your thinking is that of a chess player, not a game theorist"
++ Game-theoretically there are only 3 possibilities:
A) Chess is a draw
B) Chess is a win for white
C) Chess is a win for black

There is a lot of evidence for A)
1) Expert opinions of world champions Steinitz, Lasker, Capablanca, Fischer, Kramnik...
2) A high draw rate of AlphaZero autoplay; even higher with more time per move, this even persists if stalemate is considered a win
3) A high draw rate in ICCF WC correspondence play, even higher over the years, despite the fact that 7-men endgame table base win claims are allowed that exceed 50 moves without pawn move or capture
4) A high draw rate in TCEC engine competition, despite the fact that slightly imbalanced openings are imposed to avoid all draws.

There is no evidence for B)
There are a few minority opinions of Rauser (1 e4 wins) and Berliner (1 d4 wins).
There exists long wins for white or black in positions with 8 men, but no evidence that these can arrive from the initial position by a reasonable game, i.e. a game with > 50% accuracy.

There is no evidence for C)
There exist Zugzwang positions with 8 men won for black, but no evidence that these can arrive from the initial position by a reasonable game, i.e. a game with > 50% accuracy.

"A sample of a few thousand games between imperfect players could never be reliable."
++ My calculation shows that 99% of ICCF WC draws are ideal games with optimal moves i.e. perfect play. My calculation starts from the hypothesis that A) is true, but there is no way to explain the observed data starting from hypotheses B) or C). 

Elroch

To show how loose your thinking is, I challenge you to define how to determine (even merely in principle) what "a game with > 50% accuracy" is.

Your thinking is full of vague intuitions lacking even definitions in some cases!

lfPatriotGames
tygxc wrote:

#9672

"your thinking is that of a chess player, not a game theorist"
++ Game-theoretically there are only 3 possibilities:
A) Chess is a draw
B) Chess is a win for white
C) Chess is a win for black

There is a lot of evidence for A)
1) Expert opinions of world champions Steinitz, Lasker, Capablanca, Fischer, Kramnik...
2) A high draw rate of AlphaZero autoplay; even higher with more time per move, this even persists if stalemate is considered a win
3) A high draw rate in ICCF WC correspondence play, even higher over the years, despite the fact that 7-men endgame table base win claims are allowed that exceed 50 moves without pawn move or capture
4) A high draw rate in TCEC engine competition, despite the fact that slightly imbalanced openings are imposed to avoid all draws.

There is no evidence for B)
There are a few minority opinions of Rauser (1 e4 wins) and Berliner (1 d4 wins).
There exists long wins for white or black in positions with 8 men, but no evidence that these can arrive from the initial position by a reasonable game, i.e. a game with > 50% accuracy.

There is no evidence for C)
There exist Zugzwang positions with 8 men won for black, but no evidence that these can arrive from the initial position by a reasonable game, i.e. a game with > 50% accuracy.

"A sample of a few thousand games between imperfect players could never be reliable."
++ My calculation shows that 99% of ICCF WC draws are ideal games with optimal moves i.e. perfect play. My calculation starts from the hypothesis that A) is true, but there is no way to explain the observed data starting from hypotheses B) or C). 

So there is no evidence for B or C?? I thought there was some agreement that white has a first move advantage, even if very small. I suppose the argument would go that such a small advantage cannot be a forced win advantage, but wouldn't that still be evidence?

I understand it might not be proof, but wouldn't it still be evidence?

If whites first move advantage isn't evidence of a forced win for white then does that mean a high drawing rate mean that there is no evidence chess is a draw? Because some games do not end in draws. 

tygxc

#9676

"I thought there was some agreement that white has a first move advantage, even if very small."
++ Consensus is that the first move advantage is too small to win.
Black can even afford to lose another tempo.
https://www.chessgames.com/perl/chessgame?gid=1768345 

"some games do not end in draws"
++ But the higher the play level and the longer the time control, the more draws.
Hence it approaches all draws for infinite time and infinite play level.

tygxc

#9675
"how to determine (even merely in principle) what "a game with > 50% accuracy" is."
++ Take the game and analyse it with any imperfect engine e.g. the one on this site.
If > 50% then it is reasonable.
If close to 100%, then it is perfect.
It is possible that a perfect game has e.g. only 96% as evaluated by some imperfect engine.
If any imperfect engine evaluates it < 50%, then surely the game is not perfect. 

OnStar

No analysis by human or machine ever examines more than 1 trillionth of all undetermined branches in any game.  While I can accept that our intuition leads us to believe that a draw is more probably than the other alternatives for perfect chess, I put little stock in how certain that can ever be.

lfPatriotGames
tygxc wrote:

#9676

"I thought there was some agreement that white has a first move advantage, even if very small."
++ Consensus is that the first move advantage is too small to win.
Black can even afford to lose another tempo.
https://www.chessgames.com/perl/chessgame?gid=1768345 

"some games do not end in draws"
++ But the higher the play level and the longer the time control, the more draws.
Hence it approaches all draws for infinite time and infinite play level.

But you said there is no evidence that chess is a forced win. Even with a known first move advantage. So this must mean that any drawing rate less than 100% means there is no evidence chess is a draw. 

Elroch
tygxc wrote:

#9675
"how to determine (even merely in principle) what "a game with > 50% accuracy" is."
++ Take the game and analyse it with any imperfect engine e.g. the one on this site.
If > 50% then it is reasonable.

You have haven't said what is being measured. Again, this shows the extreme looseness of your thinking.

If what you mean is that half the moves are the same as the engine picks, this is a laughable condition which certainly could not be used for any serious conclusions.
If close to 100%, then it is perfect.

All sorts of wrong assumptions here. A chess game is lost by one move. It's the move that last changes the theoretical value from 1/2 or 1 to 0. Getting every single other move right can leave a player with a rating near zero if they pick their blunders carefully.

It is possible that a perfect game has e.g. only 96% as evaluated by some imperfect engine.

96% of what? At this point the notion of move matching is untenable, since obviously perfect play can have less than 50% agreement with another perfect player. This is because there is usually more than one game theoretically best move.

If you are referring to the chess.com accuracy statistic, it is even more ridiculous, since none of us know how this statistic is calculated. We know from imperfect empirical information that stronger players tend to have higher "accuracy" stats (but we also know that the relationship is not monotone. For example, there are people who have accuracy stats at blitz which are lower than mine who are over 500 points higher rated (and I don't have a tendency to lose winning positions on time). Accuracy depends on the type of position. Quiet positions increase accuracy, very complex ones decrease it dramatically, without the rating changing at all.
If any imperfect engine evaluates it < 50%, then surely the game is not perfect. 

Really? Remind me again of THE DEFINITION OF THE STATISTIC. Without a definition you have no idea what you are discussing.

RestedPawn

PROOF OF CHESS IS A DRAW WITH PERFECT PLAY:

  1. White has advantage (A) with first move where A>0<1
  2. Due to perfect play, black knows drawn endgames exist where white has A = 3  (example, king vs king and knight).
  3. Black, therefore, has a 3 point material padding to ensure a draw.
  4. Due to #3, above, with perfect play, black can always force a draw.

Further nuance to my argument:

Since white has advantage, it is therefore impossible for black to win with white playing perfect,

therefore black's AI goal must be not to win, but to draw.  This is important because if black plays to win, even with perfect play, I could make a philosophical argument that black could still lose even with perfect play.  Perhaps my argument wouldn't hold up, but I could make an argument nontheless.  But I'm certain that black should have the explicit goal to draw, and white will have the explicit goal to win.  

Steven-ODonoghue
RestedPawn wrote:
  1. Black, therefore, has a 3 point material padding to ensure a draw.

Black has a roughly 0.7 point margin between a win and a draw, as estimated by both Nakamura and Larry Kaufman (one of the world leading computer chess experts).

RestedPawn
Steven-ODonoghue wrote:
RestedPawn wrote:
  1. Black, therefore, has a 3 point material padding to ensure a draw.

Black has a roughly 0.7 point margin between a win and a draw, as estimated by both Nakamura and Larry Kaufman (one of the world leading computer chess experts).

believe me, I respect GM's- esp Hikaru my favorite player, and while their opinions are certainly valid, it doesn't make them right.  This question is a philosophical/mathematical one and a GM is not inherently more qualified to answer this simply by virtue of being a GM.    I believe I made a good argument and if someone disagrees with my argument, I'd love to read a well thought out rebuttal.  

tactic
RestedPawn wrote:
Steven-ODonoghue wrote:
RestedPawn wrote:
  1. Black, therefore, has a 3 point material padding to ensure a draw.

Black has a roughly 0.7 point margin between a win and a draw, as estimated by both Nakamura and Larry Kaufman (one of the world leading computer chess experts).

believe me, I respect GM's- esp Hikaru my favorite player, and while their opinions are certainly valid, it doesn't make them right.  This question is a philosophical/mathematical one and a GM is not inherently more qualified to answer this simply by virtue of being a GM.    I believe I made a good argument and if someone disagrees with my argument, I'd love to read a well thought out rebuttal.  

A GM is certainly more qualified to answer this; as they spend lots of time around engines and they can estimate win probability based on computer evaluation based on their own experiences. A GM is likely more invested in the more professional area of chess (engines, precision, analysis, annotations, etc.), so I don't understand why being a GM would not change any virtue of qualification. Plus, he was assisted by one of the worlds leading computer chess experts, so surely they at least have some degree of knowledge, yes? This question is not strictly philosophical, this is simply based on pure probability based on observations of millions of games played by the leading engine, Stockfish, and other engines. The comment made by Hikaru and Larry Kaufman is not meant to be precise, but a rough approximation, as is clear from the wording.

I'm not sure you understood the quote.

tactic
RestedPawn wrote:

PROOF OF CHESS IS A DRAW WITH PERFECT PLAY:

  1. White has advantage (A) with first move where A>0<1
  2. Due to perfect play, black knows drawn endgames exist where white has A = 3  (example, king vs king and knight).
  3. Black, therefore, has a 3 point material padding to ensure a draw.
  4. Due to #3, above, with perfect play, black can always force a draw.

Further nuance to my argument:

Since white has advantage, it is therefore impossible for black to win with white playing perfect,

therefore black's AI goal must be not to win, but to draw.  This is important because if black plays to win, even with perfect play, I could make a philosophical argument that black could still lose even with perfect play.  Perhaps my argument wouldn't hold up, but I could make an argument nontheless.  But I'm certain that black should have the explicit goal to draw, and white will have the explicit goal to win.  

This is incorrect. King + Knight vs King is a draw, but this does not mean that a 3 point material advantage would not be enough to convert in ANY situation. Sure, there are some cases where the receiving end of the 3 point material disadvantage holds a win, or even a draw, but if there are at least pawns on the board it is likely that the 3 point material advantage will accumulate due to the 3 point material advantage allowing the opponent to exert more pressure and therefore increase their material advantage. 

The three point material advantage does not act as padding. There are an estimated 10^120 possibilities of moves in just a single chess match; and material is not concrete enough to cover all bases. Plus, a Knight being strictly three points is not correct, but is rough approximation to give players a more tangible way to think of the game, mostly beginners.

All the evidence you provided is based on outdated and old ways of thinking, adopted during the legacy of Wilhem Steinitz. In the age of Stockfish, Leela, and AlphaZero, we learn that material can often be exchange for initiative, and initiative is often decides the game beyond material.

To sum it all up, you are incorrect because you assumed that every position can be strictly evaluated based on only material balance, which is already an incorrect presupposition.

Also, it seems that the top half of your bottom paragraph seems to have correct thinking, but is already based off incorrect assumptions. Black is not playing down material, they are playing down initiative. White is up a tempo, meaning that he should be playing for a win at the start of the game. Black, assuming White has perfect play, should play for a draw.

RestedPawn

I know that a 3 point material advantage is not enough to convert in any situation but we are assuming perfect play and with perfect play black could certainly sacrifice material to ensure a draw.  Starting initiative for white is less than 1 and black has more than enough padding to ensure a draw.  I didn't claim that 3 points is a draw in all cases, only as an example of how black can plan ahead and white's 1 move initiative is theoretically not enough to overcome the point spread black innately has to draw the game.

 

To sum it all up, you are incorrect because you assumed that every position can be strictly evaluated based on only material balance, which is already an incorrect presupposition.

That is not a presupposition in my argument.  How did my argument make any such presupposition?  My argument instead presupposes that drawn endgames can have variance in material advantage, which is correct. In fact, what I am arguing is that material can be lost in order to ensure a draw and with perfect play, there is no path to victory for white with a 1 move initiative advantage, it is not enough to overcome black's ability to sacrifice material in order to draw.

tactic
RestedPawn wrote:

I know that a 3 point material advantage is not enough to convert in any situation but we are assuming perfect play and with perfect play black could certainly sacrifice material to ensure a draw.  Starting initiative for white is less than 1 and black has more than enough padding to ensure a draw.  I didn't claim that 3 points is a draw in all cases, only as an example of how black can plan ahead and white's 1 move initiative is theoretically not enough to overcome the point spread black innately has to draw the game.

Surely a sacrifice isn't needed in every situation? What is wrong with your original comment is that you mentioned a 3 point material advantage was a padding for ensuring a draw, which is incorrect. I agree that chess is a draw with perfect play, but your logic is simply inconsistent. 

"Black, therefore, has a 3 point material padding to ensure a draw." does this not imply forced balance based on materialistic approximation?

tactic

Based on your logic, couldn't a 6 point material advantage be "padding to ensure a draw," as two Knights vs King cannot force a win, but a 5 point material advantage not be padding to ensure a draw as two Knights vs one Pawn is often a forced win for the side with the Knights?

Doesn't 3 pawns vs King also act as a 3 point material advantage, yet the side with the pawns can often secure a win?

RestedPawn

"Black, therefore, has a 3 point material padding to ensure a draw." does this not imply forced balance based on materialistic approximation?

No, rather it implies increased capability to ensure a draw.  White must play to win. 

White's only advantage is a one move iniative.

Black is playing to draw.

Blacks advantage is material sacrifice to drawn endgames.

If you deny that condition as an advantage for black, I simply disagree.  I believe that the ability to sacrifice material to known drawn endgames is most definitely an advantage in black's favor.

RestedPawn

We just disagree, that is fine.  But I believe it's reasonable that...within black's arsenal to accomplish his goal (which is to draw, not to win), black has the ability to purge material in order to force a draw.  I fail to see how this isn't an advantage, we see this all the time in high level chess games where one side only needs a draw and that dramatically affects play from white.

tactic

The ability to sacrifice material to known drawn endgames is still not "material padding." Sacrificing into an endgame with a 3 point material disadvantage still does not guarantee a draw.