I think not but if they do the solution will be, White plays and black can draw on all moves on several ways.
I think not but if they do the solution will be, White plays and black can draw on all moves on several ways.
If white opens with e4 or d4, he already has a slight advantage (according to all chess engines). A perfect computer would calculate this and would open with one of those two moves. Therefore, the solution cannot be black wins. White always has to make a mistake for black to win. Knowing what white has done, before having to move, is not an advantage in top-level chess. If you give any GM a choice of white or black, he will always take white. I really believe that the solution to chess (if there ever is one) will be a draw, either by repetition, perpetual check or insufficient material to mate (K+N or K+B vs K+P). Rather than making a sub-optimal move, a computer will take a draw by repetition or perpetual check or sac a piece for a passed pawn in the endgame to force a draw..
You prove me wrong if you think I am wrong. I don't see any way that black could have an advantage. Convince me otherwise.
I understand your reasoning now.
If you don't see it, it does not exist.
Please keep your eyes open, lest you make the entire universe disappear.
I hope you guys are kids / teens.
it may be a kid or teenager on this thread now that solves chess tomorrow👽
It is interesting to explore the imprecise practical notion of advantage in a way which may be able to make it concrete. The key intuitive notion is that an advantageous position is one which requires less computation to achieve a result.
At stands, this is not properly defined, but one can first define a Universe of passable chess computers, defined by the axiom that for any of them, the probability that they will find a correct move in a position will tend to 1 as they are given more and more time.
But we should not treat all these computers equally. Some are very slow and are to be ignored. A notion of quality is that a computer achieves some accuracy fast given some sort of limitation on storage used. This limitation is crucial, as there is a "trivial" blindingly fast, perfect computer that consists of the 32 piece tablebase, but this requires stupendous amount of storage.
I have been a bit loose, but I suspect that with a bit of use of information theory (to deal with the issue of coping with all possible opponents in an efficient way, by appropriately weighting the code to what matters most), there are probably natural metrics for advantage in positions (or at least a range of equally valid metrics associated with alternative, optimal given constraints, imperfect chess computers.
I wholeheartedly believe that anything is possible.
That being said, I am taking the position that black has no chance, in the game of chess, to force a win.
1. There are more "things" that are impossible to happen than the few things that actually do happen.
2. It is completely logical to expect Black has an equal chance to force a win.
3. s23bog is illogical, contradictory, irrational etc. etc.
It is however an interesting question what would be good odds to offer on chess being a win for black. I would feel very comfortable offering 10:1 odds against this (and reckon it would not be reckless to offer much higher ones, say 100:1 or more).
The reason is that the empirical results of games of chess are probably a good guide to the correct result. Zugzwang is a relatively unusual feature of endgame positions where one side has a clear advantage, and other than that, the empirical, practical value of a half move of time is not in doubt.
bb gum,
I was thinking about what you said last night about information being the metric by which information is an advantage. Something seems rather circular about this.
Typically, white's "compulsion" to move first is considered an advantage. It is often called the initiative. Why do you think that this "advantage" for white is actually an advantage for black? Please explain how that could happen by illustrating from the starting position.
I don't think it's an advantage for black. I think the elements of a position are mobility and space, and with a move like 1.e4 white's position gains in both.
But again, what I think, and what's possible are different. I said it's possible because black has an advantage in information.
Here's some examples / thoughts from move one (I guess copy and past it, chess.com isn't making it a clickable link)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First-move_advantage_in_chess#Reversed_openings
Actually, the main elements of chess are power, space and time. Time is the initiative or tempo. White has the tempo until he makes a mistake (which, in this perfect solution scenario, cannot happen). The idea that black has more information and therefore has an information advantage is incorrect. White can open with 1. Nf3 and transpose into a variety of openings, if he chooses. 1. Nf3 gives him both the tempo and space and also nullifies black's "information advantage" in the opening. In fact, I used to open with Nf3 for that very reason.
To be more precise about this notion of white giving up a move, all white has to do is to find an opportunity to move a pawn, a bishop, a rook or a queen twice to reach a square it could have got to in one move to reach a position that could be reached by black (and which would be acceptable for black).
There are such a lot of opportunities to waste a move, this does seem highly plausible.
I am taking the position that black has no chance, in the game of chess, to force a win.
"Impossible" and "no chance" are strong terms, but I agree with the sentiment. I wouldn't take someone seriously if they said they think black wins with perfect play.
And you'd take seriously someone who said white wins with perfect play ?
This statement is invalid, based on assumptions. With several board games it is a disadvantage to move 1st. Counter-attack, sacrifice of material if not accepted may well lead to an advantage for black.
Point is: There simply is no way of knowing. Part of the beauty and intrigue of the game imo.
It is interesting to explore the imprecise practical notion of advantage in a way which may be able to make it concrete. The key intuitive notion is that an advantageous position is one which requires less computation to achieve a result.
At stands, this is not properly defined, but one can first define a Universe of passable chess computers, defined by the axiom that for any of them, the probability that they will find a correct move in a position will tend to 1 as they are given more and more time.
But we should not treat all these computers equally. Some are very slow and are to be ignored. A notion of quality is that a computer achieves some accuracy fast given some sort of limitation on storage used. This limitation is crucial, as there is a "trivial" blindingly fast, perfect computer that consists of the 32 piece tablebase, but this requires stupendous amount of storage.
I have been a bit loose, but I suspect that with a bit of use of information theory (to deal with the issue of coping with all possible opponents in an efficient way, by appropriately weighting the code to what matters most), there are probably natural metrics for advantage in positions (or at least a range of equally valid metrics associated with alternative, optimal given constraints, imperfect chess computers.
Lets say we have a computer that consistently achieves favorable results with limited calculation. How do we know this is because the moves themselves are advantageous (in the sense you've outlined) vs the computer's effectiveness? We might imagine computer A and computer B where both achieve the same results with the same limitations, but they are choosing different moves.
It seems a universal value for the advantage of a move is not possible. A move may be advantageous for one player or method, but not for all players or methods (short of an ideal player).
In a sense, a universal value can be proven to be impossible, except for the values 1, 0 and 1/2 for the result with perfect play.
My sketch proof is as follows. Suppose you have access to a tablebase, then you can pick any single best move out of this table base and include it as a hard-wired choice in any computer program at small cost in time and space. So no individual moves are hard to ALL programs (indeed ALL individual moves are easy to SOME primitive programs by this grafting technique).
Therefore you need to judge a program by how hard it finds a large number of positions. The easiest approach (conceptually) would be to judge it by a weighted sum of how good it does in ALL legally reachable positions. Somehow it necessary to achieve a higher weight for positions that are of any interest, by being plausible in real games against competent opponents.
I hypothesise that a good definition considers programs playing against each other, like a good poker computer might be one that does relatively well against a range of other poker computers.
The real problem with the notion that black could force a win is that white can always give up his extra move in hand at any time during the opening without penalty. In many other games (checkers, for example) this is not possible.
a) White cannot "always give up his move in hand". That requires Black's co-operation
b) It is irrelevant to the question under discussion
By "give up his extra move" I think he meant playing a move like a3 or h3, early on (before it attacks a pinning bishop). For example, white can probably still force a draw by opening with 1. h3, if he then follows it up with more solid opening moves (kinda like a reversed opening). Not sure if he could force a win with it though. Maybe white can force a win with 1. Nf3 though, since it's a very solid move and is very non-committal too (eliminating any chance of black having an "advanced knowledge" advantage). GM's have even tested this theory by opening with moves such as g3, g4 or b3. Those moves don't control the center and could be seen as "wasted" moves by some players.
Moves like d3 offer many opportunities to entire precise colour-reversed positions. There are no moves by black that you cannot follow up with d4 to reach a playable position identical to one which black could sensibly reach after one move!
As normal, no one is getting any where with the solution.
Will computers ever SOLVE chess ? YES.
It won't be a child, kid, teen or even a chess player, it will be a programmer. And the program isn't even hard to design.
Anyone care to say "NO' ? Hope you know programming.
First : YOU have no estimate of the hardware needed. Second : there is a lot of hardware on earth, and very big. Third : There are many designs that reduce the tables needed to cover EVERY possible game. Would you like some ? But you did agree that we can solve chess by recording every possible game, right ?
Fourth : what does solve mean ? Does it mean that for a given possition to know this is a WIN. or that we need to know that whatever black move is , what white needs to do to Win. That's a big difference in the data recorded. Which do you want "solve" to be ? The program can do either.
Yeah, those are the 3. I left out tempo because we're not necessarily agreeing that the first move is an advantage. I use the word "mobility' instead of the word space, because I think it's confusing that chess players use the word "space" to mean two different things. I didn't include "power" because it's too early in the game to talk about material difference.
I include "space" (in this case meaning safe squares behind pawns) because I'm a little weird. I'll agree that this sort of space is debatable. I think it's just an extension of the concept of mobility so maybe I shouldn't have used that one.
Anyway, 1.Nf3 means white can't play f4, can't play the knight to e2, and as transpositionally useful as it is, black can just reply 1...Nf6. It's not possible to nullify the information advantage unless you pass, which is not allowed in chess.
I believe that "space" has to do more with how many squares on the board that you control and how limited your opponent is. For example, if white controls the center, plus squares in the opponent's territory, while black is cramped and his pieces can't be mobilized easily. That's a space advantage for white. It's similar to mobility, but not exactly the same. Time (or the tempo) is a constantly changing element, which always favors white until white loses it. In theory, if this supercomputer plays all perfect moves, white should never have to give up the tempo. That's the key to this debate right there. White will always have the tempo advantage, in a perfect game, therefore white should never lose. Even after 1. Nf3 Nf6, white still has the tempo. Tempo overrides your perceived "knowledge advantage". True, if I play Nf3, then I can't play f4 any time soon. Although, since f4 is considered by most GM's to be a weakening move (if played too early), that's not a big deal. I'd rather play it safe, open with Nf3 and then try to get f4 in later on, if that turns out to be my best plan in a certain position. Usually d4 is better than f4 though and Nf3 doesn't prevent or delay d4 in any way. No matter what black plays, I can get in d4, with Nf3, e3, d4 or Nf3, c3, d4. An e-pawn player probably wouldn't want to open with Nf3 though. Black can usually prevent (or blunt the effectiveness of) e4 if it's not played on move 1.
To be more precise about this notion of white giving up a move, all white has to do is to find an opportunity to move a pawn, a bishop, a rook or a queen twice to reach a square it could have got to in one move to reach a position that could be reached by black (and which would be acceptable for black).
There are such a lot of opportunities to waste a move, this does seem highly plausible.
Ah, I guess, but this definitely isn't always possible. As a silly example, 1.e3 d5 and white can't reasonably play 2.e4
Yes, but if white opens with 1. e3, he has no intention of playing e4. He basically gave up that right and is ok with that. Btw, 1. e3 could be another example of "passing the tempo to black". 1. e3 is just a weak opening move, since 1. d4, 1. Nf3 and 1. e4 are much better. I actually experimented with e3, back in the 1990's, as a way of playing a French, with colors reversed (since I played the French, as black, at the time). However, my best friend explained to me why it was inferior to the main opening moves, so I stopped playing it. I believe it's called the Van Kroy's Opening. lol In fact, the French Defense is a good example of why the solution to chess is probably a draw. The French Exchange and Rubinstein Variations are dead draws, with best play by both sides. So, in theory, if black plays the French, white can force a draw with best play, with 3. exd5. This may possibly be true with all book openings (although we don't know that for sure yet).
[...] White is NOT at a disadvantage for being "compelled to move" first. He is NOT in zugzwang.
Prove it.