@KeSetoKaiba
(Blah Blah Blah comment 2-4 which are very long)
Yes, I agree, it is hard but good.
Yeah I knew many people would skip over my posts instead of reading them :/
I just so happened to be the first to comment on the thread op puzzle and since they didn't know the solution yet (and I certainly didn't), I thought the best way to spark the learning-process would be to present my own (admittingly in-depth) thought process. The hope would be to exchange ideas and either one of us would figure out the solution or someone else would read our posts and use it as a building block to come up with the solution themselves. I just wanted to know the answer!
Unfortunately, the thread op never responded to this thread since the original post and then chess.com had the diagram glitch shortly after. This just left my thought process ("long posts") mostly unanswered and skipped over. Sigh. It's fine, I didn't expect everyone to read through them, but I was at least hoping it would come across as more beneficial than it did...
I think I get it. After 1.h6 Kf7 you do the triangulation thing to deprive black of bishop waiting moves and then black's king needs to go back to the back rank and then white plays g6 hxg6 f6. Yes, I think you solved it!
Hate to rain on the parade, but 1. h6 Bh2 is still an alternative (as is Black advancing a Queenside pawn too) as the Black King isn't forced to budge. So what if White can create one passed pawn? The Black King can still hold it based on its defensive location. Even if White had two connected passed pawns, it isn't enough to win on its own.
I mentioned the 1.h6 Kf7 line because for whatever reason I had a brainfart and I didn't understand how you win there despite understanding how to win after 1.h6 Bh2. White wins the bishop either on the second move, or via b1-a1-a2 triangulation and deprives black of bishop waiting moves. Black will eventually run out of pawn moves and he will have to move his king every turn. Let's play the game out here in this forum thread. I will play white. Just post your move as a comment. https://www.chess.com/forum/view/general/solving-the-anti-cheating-puzzle?page=1#last_comment
Here is the FEN of the starting position if you want to put it into a chess program 6k1/p1p4p/2p5/5PPP/p5p1/2p2pP1/P1P2P2/5KbN w - - 0 1
It sounds like you've figured out the solution based on others reacting (that is an awesome find; congrats on solving it
). I haven't been able to view your solution because of chess.com's recent diagram glitch (which is really bothersome for me right now since I use pgn diagrams a lot, but I'll manage). When the diagram thing gets fixed, then hopefully I can see the solution presented and enjoy its solving concept 