I've attached a copy of an Abbott Chess Problem (no 7) that I have issue with and thought I would see what others think about this. This is a two move puzzle. I think the puzzle can be solved with a Bc3 for mate, one move. The solution in the book is Qh6 - Bc3. Is this an unnecessary step just to make two moves or am I missing something?
Another possibility is to play d4+ and after cxd4 (forced) then Qxd4 mate. But two moves are also necessary... the solution Qh6, Bc3 doesn't make much sense to me.