Chess will never be solved, here's why

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tygxc

@5854

You still do not understand.

"a single strong solution might say "If white, play 1.e4. If black respond to 1.d4 with 1. Nf6", and thus never deal with 1. d4 f5." ++ No, that is a weak solution.

"providing the value for every move in every position is such a natural one, it deserves its own term." ++ No, that is a strong solution.

Game-theoretic value of a game is the outcome when all participants play optimally.

Ultra-weakly solved means that the game-theoretic value of the initial position has been determined.

Weakly solved means that for the initial position a strategy has been determined to achieve the game-theoretic value against any opposition.

Strongly solved is being used for a game for which such a strategy has been determined for all legal positions.
1 d4 f5? is a legal position and thus is part of a strong solution just like 1 g4? or 1 e4 e5 2 Ba6?.

tygxc

@5856

"At some point chess will be solved." ++ Yes.

"How?" ++ Starting from ICCF WC draws analyse 3 alternatives per move until the 7-men endgame table base or a prior 3-fold repetition draw.

"Why?" ++ It is human nature to explore things.

"When?" ++ 5 years after allocation of resources: 3 million $.

"Where?" ++ Somewhere.

"By whom?" ++ By 3 (ICCF) (grand)masters.

"By what means?" ++ By 3 cloud engines of a billion positions / s each.

"Who cares?" ++ All chess players.

"I wont be around to see it." ++ You probably will.

"its years away form what we can do" ++ Yes: 5 years.

Elroch
Optimissed wrote:

It was a bit like that when Elroch discounted my own arguments that the terminology implies amd also perpetuates a lack of understanding.

Anyone who thinks a label of a mathematical concept (such as "weak solution" implies anything has a lack of understanding. A label is a sequence of letters. The rigorous definition of the meaning of the label is all that matters.

Elroch

No. Rigorous definitions of mathematical concepts (such as "weak solution") are just that - rigorous definitions, expressible within a formal system.

Your spiel is obfuscation rather than relevant.

MARattigan
Optimissed wrote:


...
Even MAR, in a brief moment of semi-clarity, agreed with me that you're fundamentally wrong. ...

I don't believe so. Where?

I do think you are fundamentally wrong on this point.

Elroch

Game theory unquestionably does apply to all the forms of chess we are discussing here (all theorems whose conditions are satisfied).

Technically, basic chess falls into a different category to those versions with automatic repetition or move-count drawing rules (so do all versions of chess without automatic repetition or ply-without-irreversible-move rules). This is because basic chess games can be infinite. But all fall within game theory in general (and its subfield, games of perfect information).

tygxc

@5881

"Game theory unquestionably does apply to all the forms of chess"
++ Yes. 'Games solved: Now and in the future' clearly applies to solving chess.
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0004370201001527 

People keep confusing weakly solved and strongly solved.

TheEnigmaPiece

Is The Classical Chess Board Setup Flawless? Here's why I ask, and the answer may not be black or white, but both black and white: Why should white's kingside castling be to the right, but black's to the left? I see an unevenness in the game here. But if kings faced queens, both sides would castle perfectly even. It's not black or white . . . If two right-handed, or two left-handed players play, why should kings not face queens, and kingside castling be perfectly even (to the same side from each player's perspective?) Here are my thoughts on it: Let's say two armed men, both right-handed, or both left-handed, face each other, and both are carrying both a shield and a sword. When they face each other, will swords face swords, or will swords face shields? But let's say a left-handed man faces a right-handed man, will swords then face shields, or will swords face swords and shields face shields? Or if two couples, two kings and queens, walk up to one another, both having their partner on the same side, when they face each other, will kings face kings, or will they face the queens directly? Now why one cannot just shoot down what I'm asking about is because a game like chess involves two people. A car resembles a human in many ways because it is designed to be used by a human and thus needs to mirror many things the human driver's body performs. So a car has 'eyes' (lights), a 'mouth' (the horn), a 'heart' (the engine), 'blood' (the fuel), 'feet' (the wheels), 'eyelids' (windscreen wipers) etc... In the same way, chess is a reflection of the players. So if two right-handed, or two left-handed players play, why should the classical board setup not be as mentioned earlier, in view of these arguments? But if a left-handed player plays a right-handed player, I'd leave it just as it is. Yet even so, black should still have the chance to move first. Hmmm.... Your thoughts?

MARattigan
Optimissed wrote:

Well, I'm completely aware that you're somewhat puddled but you did accept my argument that Games Theory cannot apply and you argued strongly with Elroch on that very point. I hope you are not so far gone that you're denying it. All else follows from that.

I didn't accept your argument that game theory cannot apply to chess; I accepted only your conclusion

I did also point that out earlier.

With some changes to the laws  (multiple possible ways) it can be turned into a two player zero sum game with perfect information, when game theory does apply.

A solution of chess with some such changes is what most posters are discussing. (An exception being @tygxc who wants the 50 move rule to simultaneouly apply and not apply, so is not talking about a possible game at all.)

tygxc

@5884
"@tygxc who wants the 50 move rule to simultaneouly apply and not apply"
++ No, the 50 moves rule plays no role at all in solving chess. Ignore it.
The 3-fold repetition rule however is essential.

MARattigan

So is the rule in or out in the game you're offering to solve? It pays to know what the rules are before you start trying to solve a game.

You say here

We are talking about solving chess, i.e. the game with all its Laws of Chess.

So we could be forgiven for assuming the 50 move rule is to be included (along with the TCEC win and draw rules and simultaneously optional tablebase adjudication at 7 men and no such adjudication etc, judging from the examples you give.)

Are simultaneous resignations allowed? Is an arbiter involved?

tygxc

@5886
"the 50 move rule is to be included" ++ You can include it if you want: it plays no role.
The weak solution of chess without the 50-moves rule also applies with the 50-moves rule.

"TCEC win and draw rules" ++ Of course once the 7-men table base is reached the calculation stops and the result is retrieved from the 7-men table base.

Elroch

That is perfectly reasonable for a weak solution, although the 7 piece tablebase is woefully inadequate to make solution practical.

tygxc

@5888
"reasonable for a weak solution" ++ Only a weak solution is reasonable.

"the 7 piece tablebase is woefully inadequate" ++ The 7-men endgame table base suffices.
There are much more positions around 26 men than around 8 or 9 men.

abcx123

I think it will be solved because white is one move ahead ?

tygxc

@5890
"I think it will be solved because white is one move ahead"
++ Yes, white is one move ahead, but one tempo in the initial position is not enough to win.
Chess is a draw. It is harder to prove a draw than to prove a win.

MARattigan
tygxc wrote:

@5886
"the 50 move rule is to be included" ++ You can include it if you want: it plays no role.

I include it if I'm playing under FIDE cometition rules, otherwise not. (I don't play in TCEC - you have to be an engine and you have to be invited.)

I'm asking you whether the game you're offering to solve includes it. That's not my decision, it's yours,  but you appear to be incapable of making it.


The solution of chess without the 50-moves rule also applies with the 50-moves rule.

Only if you're a moron.

"TCEC win and draw rules" ++ Of course once the 7-men table base is reached the calculation stops and the result is retrieved from the 7-men table base.

That is not TCEC rules, FIDE rules or ICCF rules. My question was not about your "calculation"; it's, "what do you mean by "chess" when you offer to solve it?".

Incidentally no show yet for your calculation of the theoretical result and error rates in my games here. Are you still working on it? What rules are you going to assume?

Will it take more than 5 years?

You just need to do that then we can ignore your "calculations". I think your "calculations" are out by several orders of magnitude in those games. See what you make it.

 

TheEnigmaPiece

Try playing the chess.com computer at max, showing the engine, with custom setup of kings facing queens. Perfect diagonal symmetry of the board. Look at what the engine says on the moves, the advantage and disadvantage scale . . .

kars44476
Hi
TheEnigmaPiece

Hello btw, everybody 👋 :P