Chess will never be solved, here's why

Sort:
Avatar of Elroch
Optimissed wrote:
Elroch wrote:
mikekalish wrote:
Elroch wrote:
mikekalish wrote:
Elroch wrote:

In "any position", there is one or more optimal moves which allows the forcing of the optimal result against any counterstrategy. In some positions this is a draw, in some positions a win (and in some a loss, which means all moves are optimal in the pure sense).

I'm not convinced. You're making an assertion that I don't agree with, but you're offering no rationale. 

I didn't, but this is a theorem from the theory of finite games, so you can be absolutely sure it is true.

The proof is not trivial but is quite easy.

OK, I'm a bit out "over my skis" here, but what is the definition of a "finite game"?

A finite two player game is where there are two players, they move alternately, there are a finite number of alternatives at each move and every game ends in a finite number of moves.  An example of a game that fails to meet the definition would be noughts and crosses on an infinite plane. Chess only meets the definition if you assume draws are forced by the 50 move rule or a repetition, rather than needing to be claimed.

[Also, I don't think my adjective "easy" was really appropriate. Rather it is a concise proof!].


What if there were two players and they each had two moves alternately?

I am not sure what you mean. If the rules of a game permit one to go on forever, it is excluded by definition.

If you meant something else, do say.

Avatar of Elroch
Optimissed wrote:
mikekalish wrote:
Elroch wrote:
mikekalish wrote:
Elroch wrote:

In "any position", there is one or more optimal moves which allows the forcing of the optimal result against any counterstrategy. In some positions this is a draw, in some positions a win (and in some a loss, which means all moves are optimal in the pure sense).

I'm not convinced. You're making an assertion that I don't agree with, but you're offering no rationale. 

I didn't, but this is a theorem from the theory of finite games, so you can be absolutely sure it is true.

The proof is not trivial but is quite easy.

OK, I'm a bit out "over my skis" here, but what is the definition of a "finite game"?


He's trying to blind us with theory. A finite game is one that is not infinite. Thet is, it ends at some point and does not have an infinity of permutations or positions. Chess might as well be infinite, for all the possibility there is in tracing all the possible games.

LOL. The difference is very important when you want to prove facts rigorously.


<<I didn't, but this is a theorem from the theory of finite games, so you can be absolutely sure it is true.>>

I stopped accepting Elroch's judgement many years ago.

While a reasonable amount of skepticism is always appropriate, with all due humility you would very rarely go wrong by believing what I say. That is because I have not lost a lifetime's habit for being precise and correct.

Your quote above is an example. Anyone who checks the body of knowledge will confirm it, via my link or any other good source.

 

Avatar of Elroch
Optimissed wrote:

You seem to place great faith in peer revue. Whereas, of course, it's necessary to have checks and balances in acedemia, a peer revue can only pick up on obvious errors since someone's peer is unlikely to be a specialist in the field under consideration. So peer revue isn't and cannot be a guarantee of correctness.

Also you're spouting the same old stuff about weak and strong and I've already explained that it's perfectly obvious that you do not understand the application of Games Theory sufficiently to have any authority on the matter.

What is "perfectly obvious" to an ignorant windbag doesn't matter as much as you think it does.

With all due humility, I have a perfect understanding of the degree to which the relevant part of game theory is applicable to chess. It is as clear to me as the meaningfulness and value of the three definitions of types of solutions of games which all the cognizant people in these forums accept, which are well-established in the academic literature, and which you falsely asserted were made up for wikipedia!
With more appropriate respect for others and less unfounded arrogance, your understanding would improve greatly. [That's not a prediction].

Avatar of Optimissed
Elroch wrote:
Optimissed wrote:
mikekalish wrote:
Elroch wrote:
mikekalish wrote:
Elroch wrote:

In "any position", there is one or more optimal moves which allows the forcing of the optimal result against any counterstrategy. In some positions this is a draw, in some positions a win (and in some a loss, which means all moves are optimal in the pure sense).

I'm not convinced. You're making an assertion that I don't agree with, but you're offering no rationale. 

I didn't, but this is a theorem from the theory of finite games, so you can be absolutely sure it is true.

The proof is not trivial but is quite easy.

OK, I'm a bit out "over my skis" here, but what is the definition of a "finite game"?


He's trying to blind us with theory. A finite game is one that is not infinite. Thet is, it ends at some point and does not have an infinity of permutations or positions. Chess might as well be infinite, for all the possibility there is in tracing all the possible games.

LOL. The difference is very important when you want to prove facts rigorously.


<<I didn't, but this is a theorem from the theory of finite games, so you can be absolutely sure it is true.>>

I stopped accepting Elroch's judgement many years ago.

While a reasonable amount of skepticism is always appropriate, with all due humility you would very rarely go wrong by believing what I say. That is because I have not lost a lifetime's habit for being precise and correct.

This is an example. Anyone who checks the body of knowledge will confirm it, via my link or any other good source.

 

I was trying to forcefully make the point that it may not always be appropriate fo "believe what you say". On this subject, especially w.r.t the application of T. of G to solving chess, you seem all at sea.

I could equally tell you that  you would very rarely go wrong by believing what I say.

Why you and not me? I also try to be precise, when the situation warrants it. You refused even to answer my points, which is a very clear indication that you cannot answer them. You call it a "body of knowledge" but there are various reasons why you are in error to call it that.

You have to answer my arguments because I can see very clearly that you are mistaken in this and that if you are following what is considered "knowledge" then you are incorrect to do so.

If you could define and explain "weakly solving chess" without resorting to other words that have to be defined, such as "strategy", and that means define it in an explanatory way rether than the obfuscatory way you have so far used, perhaps I could show you where I think you are going wrong. However, if you cannot or will not do that, then my criticism will have to stand.

Avatar of Optimissed

This game was funny.

Wrong thread, I know but there's nothing to beat light relief.


Avatar of Mike_Kalish

So do the official rules of chess include a 50 move = draw rule? And if not, how can you claim chess is a finite game? And if it's not a finite game, why would the "Theory of finite games" apply?

I'm back to "There is no proof that an 'optimal' move exists in the general case".

 

Yes, Nerves of Butter, I understand that you can find me a specific case or two where there is obviously an optimal move, but that certainly doesn't prove that one always exists. And if you can't prove one always exists, you can't claim chess is solvable. 

Avatar of Mike_Kalish

Throughout this thread, some have mistakenly considered extremely large finite numbers to be the equivalent of infinity....."for all practical purposes".  This is a mistake. No matter how large a finite number is, it is not the equivalent of infinity....or even close.... period. And any logic or conclusions that follow that assumption are false. 

Avatar of Optimissed
mikekalish wrote:

Throughout this thread, some have mistakenly considered extremely large finite numbers to be the equivalent of infinity....."for all practical purposes".  This is a mistake. No matter how large a finite number is, it is not the equivalent of infinity....or even close.... period.


Well, we know the real meaning of infinity. Infinity is an ideal. That is, it's a concept of the mind only, with no real example that we can definitely say is infinity. Having accepted that, we can then use infinity in a metaphoric sense. There are ideas of quantities which we cannot say are infinite in reality but which are near enough, conceptually. As long as we understand that infinity is an ideal concept only, it seems fine to use it in any way we want, provided it isn't part of a mathematical equation.

Avatar of Optimissed
mikekalish wrote:

 

I'm back to "There is no proof that an 'optimal' move exists in the general case".

 


That's because there is no absolute optimal move. Provided a move doesn't change the game result negatively, it is optimal in relation to a person who plays the move if it suits his or her preferred playing style.

Avatar of DiogenesDue
Optimissed wrote:

Come to think of it, I know you seem to have obsessive-compulsive disorder and it may be that you're talking about the IQ tests I did years ago. It's the second time you've mentioned "tests" in a couple of days and I haven't taken any Covid tests. I was a Wolf Cub, for a while and we had to take tests to get badges but I doubt it's that. Must be the IQ thing you're still obsessing over.

Lol @ "Come to think of it".  You just didn't like the point I was making.  Where else did I mention tests?

If you are not obsessive, then what are you still doing in a thread where you keep telling everyone they cannot understand the problems or the terminology?  It seems like you have an issue...I mean beyond the fact that you said "goodbye" less than a week ago... wink.png

Avatar of Mike_Kalish
Optimissed wrote:
mikekalish wrote:

Throughout this thread, some have mistakenly considered extremely large finite numbers to be the equivalent of infinity....."for all practical purposes".  This is a mistake. No matter how large a finite number is, it is not the equivalent of infinity....or even close.... period.


Well, we know the real meaning of infinity. Infinity is an ideal. That is, it's a concept of the mind only, with no real example that we can definitely say is infinity. Having accepted that, we can then use infinity in a metaphoric sense. There are ideas of quantities which we cannot say are infinite in reality but which are near enough, conceptually. As long as we understand that infinity is an ideal concept only, it seems fine to use it in any way we want, provided it isn't part of a mathematical equation.

The concept of infinity has a very real, very useful,  and very specific meaning in calculus. 

Avatar of Optimissed
Elroch wrote:
Optimissed wrote:

You seem to place great faith in peer revue. Whereas, of course, it's necessary to have checks and balances in acedemia, a peer revue can only pick up on obvious errors since someone's peer is unlikely to be a specialist in the field under consideration. So peer revue isn't and cannot be a guarantee of correctness.

Also you're spouting the same old stuff about weak and strong and I've already explained that it's perfectly obvious that you do not understand the application of Games Theory sufficiently to have any authority on the matter.

What is "perfectly obvious" to an ignorant windbag doesn't matter as much as you think it does.

With all due humility, I have a perfect understanding of the degree to which the relevant part of game theory is applicable to chess. It is as clear to me as the meaningfulness and value of the three definitions of types of solutions of games which all the cognizant people in these forums accept, which are well-established in the academic literature, and which you falsely asserted were made up for wikipedia!
With more appropriate respect for others and less unfounded arrogance, your understanding would improve greatly. [That's not a prediction].


I just read your ridiculously conceited epistle in its entirety.

My first observation would be that calling people an ignorant windbag may suit your ethical norms nicely, as well as your aesthetic sensibilities, so you're expressing yourself very well and showing who you are very perfectly BUT it isn't the best way to win an argument, because the only people who you will convince are other stupid people.

You may THINK you understand it and I think you don't. You make it obvious that you don't  because otherwise, you should find it easy to tell me where I'm going wrong. You deliberately obscure the subject and that is because you don't understand it. If you understood it, then you would be able to express yourself educationally and clearly.


<<It is as clear to me as the meaningfulness and value of the three definitions of types of solutions of games which all the cognizant people in these forums accept, which are well-established in the academic literature, and which you falsely asserted were made up for wikipedia!>>

Very good. The first thing is that you define those who agree with you as "cognizant". Not sure anyone does agree with you except tygxc, though. Some may believe you. That's different from agreement, so we can discard your use of "cognizant" as meaningless.

Secondly, I know it's on Wiki because I was referred there when this conversation began, as the source that was being used. And there it was: the erroneous set of definitions you're using. If you think those definitions are meaningul and yet you can't redefine them in a way that does not use the word "strategy", you're being dishonest with youself. I don't think that you're wilfully trying to deceive others: it's only that you're not intelligent enough to understand the relevance of the objections I have already made. You have a Masters Degree in stats. Being brutally honest, stats was always thought of as that branch of maths where those of lesser ability can stay afloat and find refuge. Previously, you deliberately decieved me and some others into the belief that you have a PhD. That's a bit pathetic, is it not? You aren't even honest so why should anyone give you respect? You don't give it to others.

I hope that people from your place of work are reading this. You know, the ones with the better minds than yours. There must be many of them.

Avatar of Optimissed
mikekalish wrote:
Optimissed wrote:
mikekalish wrote:

Throughout this thread, some have mistakenly considered extremely large finite numbers to be the equivalent of infinity....."for all practical purposes".  This is a mistake. No matter how large a finite number is, it is not the equivalent of infinity....or even close.... period.


Well, we know the real meaning of infinity. Infinity is an ideal. That is, it's a concept of the mind only, with no real example that we can definitely say is infinity. Having accepted that, we can then use infinity in a metaphoric sense. There are ideas of quantities which we cannot say are infinite in reality but which are near enough, conceptually. As long as we understand that infinity is an ideal concept only, it seems fine to use it in any way we want, provided it isn't part of a mathematical equation.

The concept of infinity has a very real, very useful,  and very specific meaning in calculus. 


Yes it does. Calculus uses the idea of incremental changes in one variable to calculate how that affects a dependent variable. I remember it being explained extremely well to us when we first learned it. Lots of curves drawn in chalk on the blackboard, being broken up into tiny strips, the ends of which would be curved. But it was explained that as the limits approached infinity, the error caused by the physical shape of the curves approaches zero. I enjoyed mathematics very much up to about first year university standard but I think ultimately my interests lay elsewhere. I'm not my son at all. He had the reputation at St Andrews of being a brilliant mathematician. I was never that or anywhere near but could calculate very accurately and fast in my head, which of course isn't maths but arithmetic. A prodigy, not a savant. I just learned to calculate using images in my mind. I could write a 10 digit number in my mind, do something else for a while and then read the number off, in coloured chalk. I could rub it out using a duster when I didn't need the number any more. All I can remember was that the calculations were visual and 3-dimensional, and I was doing two processes at once. And they depended on real time. That was vital. Any hesitation and it wouldn't work. I later worked out how the mind works, based on that.

I don't think Elroch ever met a true genius before. He can't cope! happy.png But the nature of the mind is that it changes through life and you have to go with it or lose what it gives you. It doesn't stay still.

Anyway, I did enjoy the pure mathematical basis of calculus. But although it has a real use, infinity is still a purely notional entity isn't it?

Avatar of mpaetz
Optimissed wrote:
mikekalish wrote:

Throughout this thread, some have mistakenly considered extremely large finite numbers to be the equivalent of infinity....."for all practical purposes".  This is a mistake. No matter how large a finite number is, it is not the equivalent of infinity....or even close.... period.


Well, we know the real meaning of infinity. Infinity is an ideal. That is, it's a concept of the mind only, with no real example that we can definitely say is infinity. Having accepted that, we can then use infinity in a metaphoric sense. There are ideas of quantities which we cannot say are infinite in reality but which are near enough, conceptually. As long as we understand that infinity is an ideal concept only, it seems fine to use it in any way we want, provided it isn't part of a mathematical equation.

    Claptrap. The number of planets in the universe may be so staggeringly huge that we can imagine it as "infinite" when theorizing that this or that condition or phenomenon "must " exist somewhere, but this number pales in comparison with how many digits are in a computation of the exact value of pi--an infinitively-repeating calculation. 

     Of course you admit in your final phrase that your assertion is inexact.

Avatar of Mike_Kalish
Optimissed wrote:

. But although it has a real use, infinity is still a purely notional entity isn't it?

Like many other things, yes. I was trying to illustrate that to a mathematician, infinity is not just a big number. It's a concept that is used every day and math beyond say, algebra, would be impossible without it. 
If you take the decimal .9999999999......... and extend those nines out to infinity, it equals one. Many people have a hard time with that. It isn't "almost" one. It EQUALS one.  Here's a simple proof:
1/3 = .3333333........ where the threes go to infinity. 

1/3 x 3 = 1. 

Therefore .3333333...... x 3 =  .99999999........   = 1. 

It's hard for non-math people to grasp that those 9's NEVER end. That's what infinity is. Our minds really weren't wired for this, so we have to kind of rewire to learn advanced math. I think the concept of solving chess challenges those same "muscles" in our brains. 

Avatar of tygxc

@4856

"So do the official rules of chess include a 50 move = draw rule?"
++ Yes in competition it is used, but ICCF allows 7-men endgame table base draws that exceed 50 moves without pawn move or capture.

"how can you claim chess is a finite game?"
++ Because of the 3-fold repetition rule.
Chess has a finite number of 10^44 legal positions.
As any of these can be reached twice only, any game of chess ends in a finite number of moves.

"There is no proof that an 'optimal' move exists in the general case".
++ As chess is finite, i.e. ends in a finite number of moves, it can only end in either a draw, a win, or a loss. Thus every position including the initial position also is either a draw, a win, or a loss.
In a lost position, there are only moves that lose.
In a drawn position there is at least 1 move that draws,
and there may be several moves that lose: errors (?).
In a won position, there is at least 1 move that wins,
there may be several moves that draw: errors (?),
and there may be several moves that lose: blunders or double errors (??).

"if you can't prove one always exists, you can't claim chess is solvable."
As proven above there is at least one optimal move in any position.

Avatar of SpaceVoidSuperEvil

All I heard was something about MIRRORS!

Avatar of Optimissed
mikekalish wrote:
Optimissed wrote:

. But although it has a real use, infinity is still a purely notional entity isn't it?

Like many other things, yes. I was trying to illustrate that to a mathematician, infinity is not just a big number. It's a concept that is used every day and math beyond say, algebra, would be impossible without it. 
If you take the decimal .9999999999......... and extend those nines out to infinity, it equals one. Many people have a hard time with that. It isn't "almost" one. It EQUALS one.  Here's a simple proof:
1/3 = .3333333........ where the threes go to infinity. 

1/3 x 3 = 1. 

Therefore .3333333...... x 3 =  .99999999........   = 1. 

It's hard for non-math people to grasp that those 9's NEVER end. That's what infinity is. Our minds really weren't wired for this, so we have to kind of rewire to learn advanced math. I think the concept of solving chess challenges those same "muscles" in our brains. 


So infinity is different in kind from pie or e. Would you agree with that or have I missed a fundamental which takes priority?

Avatar of Optimissed
mpaetz wrote:
Optimissed wrote:
mikekalish wrote:

Throughout this thread, some have mistakenly considered extremely large finite numbers to be the equivalent of infinity....."for all practical purposes".  This is a mistake. No matter how large a finite number is, it is not the equivalent of infinity....or even close.... period.


Well, we know the real meaning of infinity. Infinity is an ideal. That is, it's a concept of the mind only, with no real example that we can definitely say is infinity. Having accepted that, we can then use infinity in a metaphoric sense. There are ideas of quantities which we cannot say are infinite in reality but which are near enough, conceptually. As long as we understand that infinity is an ideal concept only, it seems fine to use it in any way we want, provided it isn't part of a mathematical equation.

    Claptrap. The number of planets in the universe may be so staggeringly huge that we can imagine it as "infinite" when theorizing that this or that condition or phenomenon "must " exist somewhere, but this number pales in comparison with how many digits are in a computation of the exact value of pi--an infinitively-repeating calculation. 

     Of course you admit in your final phrase that your assertion is inexact.


No, you missed my point entirely. As long as we understand that infinity is a notional idea, it is also possible to use that idea metaphorically.

It obvously isn't claptrap, since it's a point of view, which is completely valid in a World that is not dominated by one ideational paradigm at the expense of all others.

Avatar of Elroch

When we are talking about deductive reasoning - solving combinatorial problems (like the topic of this forum) and associated mathematical theorems, the difference between finite and infinite is far more than metaphorical - it has a large influence on what is true. The difference is so large that there are many examples that are viewed as "paradoxes" because intuition based on the finite can get misled when we move to the infinite.

As a model example, if you have a finite set of real numbers, one of them has a value less than or equal to that of all of the rest. If you have an infinite set of real numbers, this is not so.

This is relevant to game theory in at least one way (likely more). Say you have a game where the result is a real number, but this number is not limited to a finite number of possible values (as an illustrative example, chess has 3 possible values for the result).   This may cause problems with reasoning about strategies because you could have an infinite set of strategies where there is no strategy that achieves the "best" value - there is merely a sequence of strategies whose values tend to an unattainable value.

The theory of finite games deals with games that lack the property of chess that there is only a finite number of possible games (with a terminating rule relating to repetition and/or number of moves without irreversible change). It only requires that individual games are required to end by the rules and that the number of legal moves at each turn is finite.