Chess will never be solved, here's why

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MEGACHE3SE
Optimissed wrote:

From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

<<<Solving chess consists of finding an optimal strategy for the game of chess; that is, one by which one of the players (White or Black) can always force a victory, or either can force a draw (see solved game). It also means more generally solving chess-like games (i.e. combinatorial games of perfect information), such as Capablanca chess and infinite chess. According to Zermelo's theorem, a determinable optimal strategy must exist for chess and chess-like games.>>>

Here, strategy is being used in a different context or with a different meaning from how it is being used in this forum, where strategy seems to represent a permutation of moves. It's incorrect and confusing to call a series of moves a strategy, when it merely consists of finding the best moves available. The strategy is to find the best moves.

In the wiki article, strategy seems to be used differently in that an assumption is made that there is an optimal manner of pursuing the game of chess. That simply isn't true, because if chess is a draw by force, there will be myriads of lines that lead to a draw with best play by both sides. The assumption that there is exactly one drawing line and all the rest are wins is ridiculous. Since there's no evidence for it, we have to go by probability theory, which gives approximately zero chance of that being true. Therefore, the lines that are "best" will be those which are to the taste of individual players. Individual preference.

I don't know what this Zermelo's theory is and I'm going to look it up. I think it cannot possibly be relevant to chess and it is evident that the Wiki article isn't written by experts. Maybe it's based on out-of-date ideas from 25 or 50 years ago.

btw to clear some confusion there can be more than one "optimal" strategy as long as said strategy leads to the desired/predicted outcome.

MEGACHE3SE

math terms be kinda funky and i can understand why you might have interpreted them like that.  yes, "optimal play" is a singular noun, but math people dont care about stuff like that.  

tygxc

@7845
"prove it"
++ Checkmate in 83.

 

MEGACHE3SE
tygxc wrote:

@7845
"prove it"
++ Checkmate in 83.

 

1 example isnt a proof.

i apologize for being out of pocket, but do you understand what it means to meet the mathematical standard of proof?

I really dont think you do.  im starting to understand optimissed's vast frustrations.

tygxc

@7851

"here is an image demonstrating the simplification that checkers had"
++ For Chess a similar simplification results from weakly solving it.

"it's relevant search space"
++ A similar relevant seach space emerges while weakly solving Chess.
For example after 1 e4 no position with a white pawn on e2 will be relevant after that.

"with chess, we cant prove what is relevant or not yet"
++ For Checkers that was not known in advance either.

MEGACHE3SE
Optimissed wrote:
MEGACHE3SE wrote:

math terms be kinda funky and i can understand why you might have interpreted them like that.  yes, "optimal play" is a singular noun, but math people dont care about stuff like that.  


The "math person" I know best of all is my son, who is quite probably more qualified in maths than all the people commenting here, certainly including myself. However, he is literate. Language is logically constructed and so someone who thinks a singular term is a plural isn't necessarily logical enough to be a mathematician. However, I reject all the terms used here. For the purpose of solving, there is only good play and bad play. Good play is any move that doesn't change the game state and bad play is any move that changes the game state. The game state is the forced result by best play from both sides at any point in the game (any position).

Are you reasonably happy with that? Can I get away with rejecting all the confusing stuff and using clearer terms?

oh yeah of course.  on the wikipedia page, "optimal play" = what you call "good play"

tygxc

@7859

"1 example isnt a proof."
++ If white plays differently, then white loses faster than in 83 moves.

"do you understand what it means to meet the mathematical standard of proof?"
++ Yes, much more than any here.

MEGACHE3SE
tygxc wrote:

@7851

"here is an image demonstrating the simplification that checkers had"
++ For Chess a similar simplification results from weakly solving it.

"it's relevant search space"
++ A similar relevant seach space emerges while weakly solving Chess.
For example after 1 e4 no position with a white pawn on e2 will be relevant after that.

"with chess, we cant prove what is relevant or not yet"
++ For checkers that was not known in advance either.

 

you have several misunderstandings.

the simplification happens before and during the solving process, not as a result of it.

1. e4 isnt known as the best move, it is simply the first guess of the solving processes.  if chess can be weakly solved from there, great!.  but we dont know that yet.  a similar thing was also done for checkers.

MEGACHE3SE
tygxc wrote:

@7859

"1 example isnt a proof."
++ If white plays differently, then white loses faster than in 83 moves.

prove it.  does stockfish say M83?

MARattigan
Optimissed wrote:

<<The problem is we also need a solution for the irrelevant ones>>

Not at all. We need a solution for the fuzzy boundary between the relevant positions and the irrelevant ones. Because it is impossible to determine on sight which are relevant and which are not. I've been trying to explain this for years.

We have definitions for the solution of games. What is your definition for the solution of a fuzzy boundary?

For that matter what is you definition of a fuzzy boundary?

Your problem is that you don't know that all this has been gone through earlier and you aren't presenting anything new. That would be ok, except that you're telling others that you're the first one to refute tygxc and you're making other empty boasts. I'm not even the first one to see the mistakes others have been making, when they imagine they have it all perfect and pat.

I have on several occasions in the past accused you of having difficulty reading. I have to retract that. It seems that you find it easy to read far more than is actually written. 

 

tygxc

@7864

"the simplification happens before and during the solving process, not as a result of it."
++ You misunderstand. There are 2 simplifications in Checkers: transition tables and irreversibility. Most moves in Checkers are irreversible, only moves by promoted Kings are reversible. Checkers needs transition tables too. Most moves in Chess are reversible: only pawn moves and captures are reversible.

"1. e4 isnt known as the best move, it is simply the first guess of the solving processes."
++ 19 of all 20 possible first moves lead to draws, except 1 g4? loses by force. The moves 1 e4, 1 d4, 1 c4 and 1 Nf3 oppose more to the draw: make it harder for black to draw.

MEGACHE3SE
tygxc wrote:

@7859

"1 example isnt a proof."
++ If white plays differently, then white loses faster than in 83 moves.

"do you understand what it means to meet the mathematical standard of proof?"
++ Yes, much more than any here.

whats absolutely hilarious is that i did a basic game review and found that white survives at least 85 moves.  

MEGACHE3SE
tygxc wrote:

@7864

"the simplification happens before and during the solving process, not as a result of it."
++ You misunderstand. There are 2 simplifications in Checkers: transition tables and irreversibility. Most moves in Checkers are irreversible, only moves by promoted Kings are reversible. Checkers needs transition tables too. Most moves in Chess are reversible: only pawn moves and captures are reversible.

"1. e4 isnt known as the best move, it is simply the first guess of the solving processes."
++ 19 of all 20 possible first moves lead to draws, except 1 g4? loses by force. The moves 1 e4, 1 d4, 1 c4 and 1 Nf3 oppose more to the draw: make it harder for black to draw.

none of those are proven mathematically.

you reallllly dont know what it means to mathematically prove something.

if g4 loses by force, whats the number of moves until mate?

MARattigan
Optimissed wrote:
MEGACHE3SE wrote:

math terms be kinda funky and i can understand why you might have interpreted them like that.  yes, "optimal play" is a singular noun, but math people dont care about stuff like that.  


The "math person" I know best of all is my son, who is quite probably more qualified in maths than all the people commenting here, certainly including myself. However, he is literate. Language is logically constructed and so someone who thinks a singular term is a plural isn't necessarily logical enough to be a mathematician. However, I reject all the terms used here. For the purpose of solving, there is only good play and bad play. Good play is any move that doesn't change the game state and bad play is any move that changes the game state. The game state is the forced result by best play from both sides at any point in the game (any position).

Are you reasonably happy with that? Can I get away with rejecting all the confusing stuff and using clearer terms?

What you call the confusing stuff confuses only you.

What you call clearer terms confuses everybody else.

So you can use your clearer terms so long as you don't expect anyone to talk to you.

tygxc

@7869

"you reallllly dont know what it means to mathematically prove something."
++ I know that better than any here.

"if g4 loses by force, whats the number of moves until mate?"
++ 63 moves until a 7-men endgame table base loss.



tygxc

@7868

"i did a basic game review and found that white survives at least 85 moves"
++ Show your game, I will show your error.
So now you agree with the obvious fact that 1 e4 e5 2 Ba6? loses for white and hence does not need any consideration? 83 or 85 is basically the same: a loss.

MARattigan
MEGACHE3SE wrote:
tygxc wrote:

@7859

"1 example isnt a proof."
++ If white plays differently, then white loses faster than in 83 moves.

"do you understand what it means to meet the mathematical standard of proof?"
++ Yes, much more than any here.

whats absolutely hilarious is that i did a basic game review and found that white survives at least 85 moves.  

I used exactly @tygxc's method to "prove" it's mate in 2 (for White).

MARattigan
tygxc wrote:

@7868

"i did a basic game review and found that white survives at least 85 moves"
++ Show your game, I will show your error.
So now you agree with the obvious fact that 1 e4 e5 2 Ba6? loses for white and hence does not need any consideration? 83 or 85 is basically the same: a loss.

You failed to prove any error in my "proof" showing it's it's mate in 2 for White using the same method as your own proof.

Exactly the same method (just as stupid).

"if g4 loses by force, whats the number of moves until mate?"
++ 63 moves until a 7-men endgame table base loss.

 Your method again below; exactly the same (just as stupid).

 

MEGACHE3SE
tygxc wrote:

@7869

"you reallllly dont know what it means to mathematically prove something."
++ I know that better than any here.

"if g4 loses by force, whats the number of moves until mate?"
++ 63 moves until a 7-men endgame table base loss.



thats not the correct moves.  why do you keep giving incorrect moves and act like you just proved it?

MEGACHE3SE

"So now you agree with the obvious fact that 1 e4 e5 2 Ba6? loses for white and hence does not need any consideration? 83 or 85 is basically the same: a loss."

the whole point is that you are unable to prove your claim was correct.

like with g4, you didnt show that 2. a4, 2. b4, 2. c4, 2. d4, 2. e4, 2. f4, 2. g5, 2. h4 lost.  you only showed that that specific combination lost.