Chess will never be solved, here's why

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Elroch

What exactly is your number meant to be, Ghostess? The same as below?

As you say, OEIS has the 26% higher number 69,352,859,712,417 for the number of possible 10 ply chess games (and is a very reliable source). On the other hand the number of _positions_ after 10 ply is surely much smaller due to transposition. And there are surely _not_ enough short mates to make up the difference. In fact _all_ of the games with 0 to 9 plys added together are only a few percent of the number of those with 10 plies. (See OEIS).

Even if your calculation is not working as intended, kudos for trying to do such a computationally demanding thing. Probably none of the others here have dared to try!

To try to determine the reason, I would suggest doing the same calculation for 1, 2, 3 ... ply.

MARattigan
shigshug wrote:

... since the number chess games is like 10^120 power according to mathematician Claude Shannon.

More misinformation.

Shannon never said that the number of possible chess games was 10¹²⁰ - read his paper.

The number of possible games under FIDE basic rules is infinite (ℵ₀ if you count only finite games, ב‎₁ if you count games of length ω).

The number of possible games under FIDE competition rules is estimated to be somewhere between 10²⁹²⁴¹ and 10³⁴⁰⁸² according to this paper.

MARattigan
tygxc wrote:

@12737

I did not compile the random sample of 10,000 (Tromp did), I only inspected and found (by big red telephone) none can result from optimal play by both sides. Tromp conjectured only 1 in 1,000,000 could qualify. (Sounds unlikely - where? Is this another of your made up quotes?)

That explains the reduction from 10^38 to 10^34 or 10^32 (but not why you should be starting with 10^38 in the first place nor what optimal play has to do with anything you've so far proposed as a non solution).

 

playerafar
MEGACHE3SE wrote:

@tygxc I really dont get how you can stomach KNOWING that you're wrong and deciding to purposefully mislead others anyways. Is it like what playerafar conjectures and you just want the attention? Or do you get a sick kick out of seeing people take your lies seriously?

there's also the possibility that you are just profoundly deluded and uneducated. but at the same time, if you were just uneducated, you would respond to people doing basic corrections to your claims, and I know that you've seen my retellings of how I've brought up your "logic" to math professors and got chided for even bothering with someone as stupid as you are. Do you think I just made it up?

Hi MEGA
when considering tygxc's motivations including the ones you and I have mentioned ...
such motivations are usually not exclusive of each other.
In other words and/or instead of just 'or'.
A or B. Or both.
And if more than two - possibly all.
It may seem that one might knock out another as a possibility ...
but with the internal psyche of those who don't care whether they believe themselves or not and thereby 'lose track' of that - there's typically internal oscillations and vacillations and cycles regarding how much they believe of their nonsense.
Its a transient situation.
And it shows as whoever trolling/disinforming moves around a clock face of different retorts and tactics.
Which can take weeks or days or even just minutes - to move around that dial.
----------------------------------
With tygxc though - while he's pushing his disinfo - he's never that far from the forum topic plus he's minimally personal.
O - that's @Optimissed - is much much worse.
tygxc's posts appear to reflect that he wants the discussions to be about the forum subject - even as he also obviously wants it to be about his disinformation regarding same.
whereas O basically wants the discussions to be about O personally and everyone else personally too especially those who disagree with or criticize O.
In other words O trolls constantly and in ways almost all members know to not do.
That is O's life's work.
---------------------------------------
O was 'badly damaged' (because of his fragile delicate nature) in a recent exchange in this forum a few days ago).
But instead of then getting himself muted by chess.com for a third recent time ..
(desperately and pathetically needing to go 'far over the top' in retorting)
this time he instead averted that and simply took a break for a few days.
Something he needs to learn to do regularly.
Something fester told him to do.

playerafar
Cirrin wrote:

On the second comment, @tygxc said that chess hasn't been solved yet

On the seventh, he said it's a draw

what?

Well spotted.
But then you'll see he tried to qualify it by posting different definitions of 'weakly solved' and that terminology is the gremlin at the center of much of the discussion here.
tygxc tries to maintain that 'perfect games' exist and that they resulted in a draw because they were 'perfect'.
That is Disinformation.
Bobby Fischer suggested publically to the effect that 'if nobody makes a mistake the game ends in a draw'
but that is misleading because 'if nobody makes a mistake' is an Abbreviation of the actual reality.
The actual reality is:
'If neither player makes a big enough mistake that is both detected and exploited sufficiently for a win by the opponent - or neither player makes a mistake that is otherwise sufficiently exploited for a win by the opponent or that otherwise leads to a loss for the player making the big enough mistake - then obviously the game ends in a draw Unless somebody's flag falling on their chess Clock also results in 'not a draw' too or instead'
That's the actual reality. Happens constantly all over the world.
-----------------------------------------------
And there's another Gremlin about terminology there too.
In that second case - word phrasing that is meant as an abbreviation resulting in saying something else and spreading disinformation.
The continuing improvement of engines indicates there aren't any known 'perfect' games because tomorrow's engines are finding wins (in other words 'mistakes') that yesterday's engines didn't find.
But tygxc will keep pushing his disinformation that there are 'known' perfect games and pretend that that 'proves' his Disinformation that 'chess is a draw with optimal play'.
Which would mislead beginner and novice players and other players.

tygxc

@12789

"I only inspected and found none can result from optimal play by both sides."
++ You can verify yourself. Here is the random sample file of 10,000 positions without promotions to pieces not previously captured. The file is raw, before legality check, i.e. contains illegal positions. The file is labelled 'noproms', meaning no promotions to pieces not previously captured, i.e. it contains only positions from 1 box of 32 chess men, but some positions have e.g. 2 dark-square bishops on one side. I inspected the positions and found none that could result from a reasonable, let alone perfect game with optimal play from both sides.
If you think one of these could, then try to come up with a reasonable game that leads to it.
You do not have to prove optimal play, only present reasonable play.

"but not why you should be starting with 10^38 in the first place"
++ The number of legal positions is (4.82 +- 0.03) * 10^44.
However, the 3 random samples shown cannot result from optimal play by both sides,
as both sides have multiple underpromotions to rooks and/or bishops,
and such underpromotions only make sense to avoid a draw by stalemate,
and it cannot be optimal play for both sides to avoid the draw.

Per Tromp the breakdown of raw position count before legality check is:
promotions: 0 positions: 19201527561695835455154058755564594798074
promotions: 1 positions: 382355871178268365234183218244670372695068
promotions: 2 positions: 3666683498600457464891752992187014354136188
promotions: 3 positions: 22267499667290257736558400874926183060238400
promotions: 4 positions: 95095065373967146179514528215894174339720228
promotions: 5 positions: 300571414300527313744528888013946849776424304
promotions: 6 positions: 721668497316402902485416452421325823057710432
promotions: 7 positions: 1329934072135692805837128923570048899100334756
promotions: 8 positions: 1874962044164806332602085236357597905810647344
promotions: 9 positions: 1980800128935921108339671872170042183548439128
promotions: 10 positions: 1492529839915108301878747832838229979840571492
promotions: 11 positions: 722080907452760073481816196266539169729817880
promotions: 12 positions: 175351843526979273665005184194531833618491680
promotions: 13 positions: 7338473695924787177946719990630518998574920
promotions: 14 positions: 45087168602668580254351850721788483191140
promotions: 15 positions: 55323182237139471340692375109727946960
promotions: 16 positions: 11716401834002951530424702440978260
Total: 8726713169886222032347729969256422370854716254

Promotions to pieces not previously captured occur in master games and in ICCF WC Finals draws, but positions with 9 promotions to pieces not previously captured make up the lion's share of the (4.82 +- 0.03) * 10^44 legal positions. That is why 10^44 is no good starting point.

A better starting point is 3.8521 * 10^37 from An upper bound for the number of chess diagrams without promotion.
'Without promotion' here is short for 'without promotion to pieces not previously captured'.
For some positions you can prove a piece is original, not promoted,
and for some positions you can prove a piece must be promoted, not original,
but generally you cannot tell from a position if it contains promoted pieces or not.
'Without promotion' means 'without promotion to pieces not previously captured',
or, in other words, positions possible from 1 box of 32 chess men.

The 10^37 is too restrictive, as positions with 3 or 4 queens do occur in master games,
and in perfect games with optimal play from both sides as we know from ICCF WC Finals draws.
I arbitrarily multiply by 10 to include such positions, leading to 10^38.
That is why starting from 10^38.

"what optimal play has to do with anything"
++ Weakly solving chess is about optimal play by both sides: positions that cannot result from optimal play by both sides are not relevant to weakly solving chess.
The 110 draws out of 110 games of the ongoing ICCF WC Finals are examples of optimal play by both sides and constitute at least part of a weak solution of Chess.
Moreover it is redundant, as it shows several strategies to achieve the game-theoretic value instead of the required one.

playerafar

tygxc not understanding that 'optimal play' hasn't been figured out yet and doesn't understand that there isn't 'optimal play' by saying there is.
Differences between a comment and a proof.
tygxc perhaps depending on an incidence of people making mistakes while rightly refuting and debunking his disinformation.

playerafar

Say a game began d4 d5 and then the two players agree to a draw.
Or - there's a flood or an earthquake and the game ends abruptly.
In both cases - as far as 'perfect game' is concerned - the game is incomplete.
Can be distinguished from 'perfect end result'.
If there's only two kings left - or there's a king and single minor piece against a lone king then those are perfect end results in both cases and are perfect draws in both cases.
When or where does 'perfect' begin to break down?
------------------------------------------
King and rook versus lone king. And the lone king isn't stalemated.
Is that a 'perfect win'?
Not if the rook side flag drops.
And if that side doesn't know how to mate there and doesn't get it right in time or goes over 50 moves or repeats the position three times - those become 'perfect draw results'.
So those still aren't perfect wins.
--------------------
A perfect win result only occurs if:
1) checkmate happens.
2) resign happens. Or a player forfeits somehow.
3) flag drops and the other player has sufficient mating material.
Those happen constantly.
But those are end results - not the games in their entireties.
----------------
now try 'perfect tablebase positions'
one side's up a rook.
There's no clock. No 50 move rule. No 3 fold repetition rule.
And its not stalemate.
Is such a position a 'perfectly won position from there'?
Yes. But that doesn't mean that position came from a perfect game.
------------------------------------
Can we prove it couldn't have?
Not necessary. Its a win.
Plus apparently we wouldn't define such a game leading to such a position as Perfect anyway.
But its the same situation with King and rook versus King and rook. A book draw.
There's no way to prove that all games producing that are perfect.
You may as well try to prove the universe is finite. Or infinite.
Neither has been done. Won't be.

Elroch
tygxc wrote:

@12789

"I only inspected and found none can result from optimal play by both sides."
++ You can verify yourself. Here is the random sample file of 10,000 positions without promotions to pieces not previously captured. The file is raw, before legality check, i.e. contains illegal positions. The file is labelled 'noproms', meaning no promotions to pieces not previously captured, i.e. it contains only positions from 1 box of 32 chess men, but some positions have e.g. 2 dark-square bishops on one side. I inspected the positions and found none that could result from a reasonable, let alone perfect game with optimal play from both sides.
If you think one of these could, then try to come up with a reasonable game that leads to it.
You do not have to prove optimal play, only present reasonable play.

"but not why you should be starting with 10^38 in the first place"
++ The number of legal positions is (4.82 +- 0.03) * 10^44.
However, the 3 random samples shown cannot result from optimal play by both sides,
as both sides have multiple underpromotions to rooks and/or bishops,
and such underpromotions only make sense to avoid a draw by stalemate,
and it cannot be optimal play for both sides to avoid the draw.

Per Tromp the breakdown of raw position count before legality check is:
promotions: 0 positions: 19201527561695835455154058755564594798074
promotions: 1 positions: 382355871178268365234183218244670372695068
promotions: 2 positions: 3666683498600457464891752992187014354136188
promotions: 3 positions: 22267499667290257736558400874926183060238400
promotions: 4 positions: 95095065373967146179514528215894174339720228
promotions: 5 positions: 300571414300527313744528888013946849776424304
promotions: 6 positions: 721668497316402902485416452421325823057710432
promotions: 7 positions: 1329934072135692805837128923570048899100334756
promotions: 8 positions: 1874962044164806332602085236357597905810647344
promotions: 9 positions: 1980800128935921108339671872170042183548439128
promotions: 10 positions: 1492529839915108301878747832838229979840571492
promotions: 11 positions: 722080907452760073481816196266539169729817880
promotions: 12 positions: 175351843526979273665005184194531833618491680
promotions: 13 positions: 7338473695924787177946719990630518998574920
promotions: 14 positions: 45087168602668580254351850721788483191140
promotions: 15 positions: 55323182237139471340692375109727946960
promotions: 16 positions: 11716401834002951530424702440978260
Total: 8726713169886222032347729969256422370854716254

Promotions to pieces not previously captured occur in master games and in ICCF WC Finals draws, but positions with 9 promotions to pieces not previously captured make up the lion's share of the (4.82 +- 0.03) * 10^44 legal positions.

No, they do not, according to your quoted numbers. The positions with 9 or more positions are similar in number to those with 8 or fewer.

That is why 10^44 is no good starting point.

Faulty premises give faulty conclusions.

A better starting point is 3.8521 * 10^37 from An upper bound for the number of chess diagrams without promotion.

That's great for chess variants where pawns cannot advance passed the seventh rank. Not for chess, though.

The 10^37 is too restrictive, as positions with 3 or 4 queens do occur in master games,
and in perfect games with optimal play from both sides as we know from ICCF WC Finals draws.

And the number of such positions is greater than those without (because the game starts with fewer queens than pawns)

I arbitrarily multiply by 10 to include such positions, leading to 10^38.
That is why starting from 10^38.

You're such a comedian! You didn't even do a dodgy calculation for that did you?

"what optimal play has to do with anything"
++ Weakly solving chess is about optimal play by both sides: positions that cannot result from optimal play by both sides are not relevant to weakly solving chess.

WRONG!

Positions that cannot result from ONE side playing moves THAT ACHIEVE THE OPTIMAL RESULT are not relevant to weakly solving chess. These moves may be suboptimal (draw instead of win) and the other players moves are restricted only by legality. THAT'S THE DEFINITION OF WEAK SOLUTION, regardless of your long held error.

The 110 draws out of 110 games of the ongoing ICCF WC Finals are examples of optimal play by both sides and constitute at least part of a weak solution of Chess.

What's that? About 5000 positions? Job nearly done then.

Moreover it is redundant, as it shows several strategies to achieve the game-theoretic value instead of the required one.

You correctly point out that not only is 5000 positions a bit short of a full weak solution, only a fraction of the positions can be in one, because they diverge. While a weak solution has to include the 20 positions after white's first move in the white strategy, it only has one move in the white strategy. To be more precise, if there are games where both players diverge between them, at least one of them is worthless to a weak solution. (eg no weak solution contains 1. d4 Nf6, 1. d4 d5, 1. e4 c5 and 1. e4 e5).

Elroch

Tromp does indeed estimate 4.8 x 10^44 legal positions with promotion, and your wish to ignore all promotions is ridiculous. The reasoning that underpromotions to bishop and rook by the proponent only of a drawing strategy can be ignored is valid. This means that we can manage with positions where one side only promotes to queens and knights. [Note you can't assume the opponent of a strategy will not underpromote because that risks reaching a position where the opponent can win only by underpromotion. Evaluating this as a draw would be fatal.

Where is the estimate of the number of these positions where one side has unlimited promotions and the other is only permitted to promote to queen or knight? On a log scale it is nearer the number for all legal positions than the number for all legal positions without promotion (because one side has all the possibilities and the other has a lot of them). Somewhere around 10^42.

Tromp (github)

BigChessplayer665
stopvacuuming wrote:

no, but you will be once im done

Nah once we are done with this conversion everyone's braincells will deplete to one and yours will probably be .5

DiogenesDue
stopvacuuming wrote:

no, but you will be once im done

Heading for another mute in a hurry I see...

...and gone already a few hours later.

MARattigan
tygxc wrote:

@12789

"I only inspected and found none can result from optimal play by both sides."
++ You can verify yourself.

You have a misconception about who is responsible for verifying the reduction you use.

It's your reduction so it's up to you to verify it yourself.

Originally you stated that none of Tromp's legal positions could be reached by sensible play which you defined in terms of the analysis page in chess.com with the version of Stockfish then available.

You were invited to show that even a single one of the positions was unreachable under that criterion and failed dismally.

You have now changed your mind and stated instead that not one of the positions can be reached by optimal play which has a well defined meaning, so I now invite you to prove that. A proof that even one is not so reachable would be a start.

Here is the random sample file of 10,000 positions without promotions to pieces not previously captured. The file is raw, before legality check, i.e. contains illegal positions. The file is labelled 'noproms', meaning no promotions to pieces not previously captured, i.e. it contains only positions from 1 box of 32 chess men, but some positions have e.g. 2 dark-square bishops on one side. I inspected the positions and found none that could result from a reasonable, let alone perfect game with optimal play from both sides.

Reasonable play is not necessarily perfect and perfect play is not necessarily reasonable (see example below). You failed to come up with even a sensible definition of the former nor a proof that even a single one of the legal positions in question was unreachable under the definition you gave.

If you think one of these could, then try to come up with a reasonable game that leads to it.

You do not have to prove optimal play, only present reasonable play.

No, sod off. It's your reduction - it's up to you to prove it. 

We don't know what's optimal without a solution and neither what is optimal nor reasonable (however you define it) is relevant. Only whether it will occur with your method during your search. You have to prove that none of Tromp's sample will occur. Best of luck. 

"but not why you should be starting with 10^38 in the first place"
++ The number of legal positions is (4.82 +- 0.03) * 10^44.

No.

That's the number of basic rules positions, taking the attributes of "position" that fully determine possible game continuations under FIDE basic rules, viz. diagram, side to move, castling rights and possible ep file. Those attributes determine the nodes of the FIDE basic rules chess search tree and you can call those attributes a FIDE basic rules chess position. 

You're talking about FIDE competition rules chess not FIDE basic rules chess.

The attributes included in a basic rules position are insufficient to fully determine possible game continuations under FIDE competition rules. Under those rules the attributes required are diagram, side to move, castling rights, possible ep file, and a list of up to 150 basic rules positions with the same material that have previously occurred (possibly including repeats). You can call those attributes a FIDE competition rules chess position. (It doesn't matter if you don't like the term, they are the nodes in Stockfish's search space.)

 @Elroch has suggested a way of drastically cutting down the size of the search space in a forward search solution of a type similar to what you originally proposed for a non solution, but you have not, so the number of nodes in Stockfish's search space is the number you should be starting with. That is the number of FIDE competition rules chess positions.

Nobody, so far as I know, has published an estimate of the number of FIDE competition rules chess positions, so I'll leave you to figure it out, but I don't think you'll fit it on the page without using two levels of index. 

However, the 3 random samples shown cannot result from optimal play by both sides,
as both sides have multiple underpromotions to rooks and/or bishops,
and such underpromotions only make sense to avoid a draw by stalemate,
and it cannot be optimal play for both sides to avoid the draw.

Per Tromp the breakdown ... irrelevant basic rules figures ...

Promotions to pieces not previously captured occur in master games and in ICCF WC Finals draws, but positions with 9 promotions to pieces not previously captured make up the lion's share of the (4.82 +- 0.03) * 10^44 legal positions. That is why 10^44 is no good starting point.

You have shown no reason to suppose that ICCF games should have any more relevance to solving even ICCF chess than a set of games between total beginners.

I agree 10^44 is no good starting point for the reasons above. It's probably far too low even for KNNvKP. 

On the other hand 4.85x10^44 is (slightly) more than adequate for constructing a retrograde (tablebase) solution, because that method can validly ignore all but the basic rules position attributes.

The reason I continue to include the factor 4.85 is that you have already acquiesced to that and also to a factor of 100 to account for the 50 move rule. These factors are very small beer compared with your ludicrous reductions , but if you had any belief in what you keep saying or any honesty you would at least be adjusting your original 5 year estimate to 5x√(4.84x100) = 110 years.

And the reason I keep referring to a non solution rather than a solution is that a weak solution is meant to give you the moves you need to make to get the best possible result from the starting position. If you put forward something that only says TSMYOYO if your opponent makes a move that tygxc or one of his handmaids didn't think was sensible or tells you how to draw if you've got a win, it's not very useful. In the words of the song, it's no bloody use to anyone, it's no bloody use at all.

A better starting point is 3.8521 * 10^37 from An upper bound for the number of chess diagrams without promotion.
'Without promotion' here is short for 'without promotion to pieces not previously captured'.
For some positions you can prove a piece is original, not promoted,
and for some positions you can prove a piece must be promoted, not original,
but generally you cannot tell from a position if it contains promoted pieces or not.
'Without promotion' means 'without promotion to pieces not previously captured',
or, in other words, positions possible from 1 box of 32 chess men.

The 10^37 is too restrictive, as positions with 3 or 4 queens do occur in master games,
and in perfect games with optimal play from both sides as we know from ICCF WC Finals draws.
I arbitrarily multiply by 10 to include such positions, leading to 10^38.
That is why starting from 10^38.

All of which might interest you but it's not germane.

What practical players do can't be related to perfect play in the absence of any solution and the non solution you would construct according to your original plan would only initially resemble anything Stockfish would actually play. Thereafter it would be a pastiche of bits of Stockfish non preferred moves and segments of Stockfish play with the latter on average getting shorter and shorter. 

"what optimal play has to do with anything"
++ Weakly solving chess is about optimal play by both sides: positions that cannot result from optimal play by both sides are not relevant to weakly solving chess.

Totally wrong.

A weak SOLUTION of chess is about optimal play by at least one side. Weakly SOLVING chess by a forward search can't be about optimal play by both sides because firstly you don't have anything that can do optimal play and secondly you have to take into account non optimal play by at least one side. 

As for optimal play the main line here is Syzygy optimal moves against me. It's not to be confused with what most people would call reasonable moves (you may differ).

The variation shown is the sample for the position from the Syzygy site. Look particularly at White's move 24.

You haven't shown that your non solution would be any more "reasonable".

The 110 draws out of 110 games of the ongoing ICCF WC Finals are examples of optimal play by both sides and constitute at least part of a weak solution of Chess.

No they aren't and no they don't.

Moreover it is redundant, as it shows several strategies to achieve the game-theoretic value instead of the required one.

It's only redundant if you and your opponent agree always to play only a proper subset of these 110 games.

Elroch
MARattigan wrote:

Nobody, so far as I know, has published an estimate of the number of FIDE competition rules chess positions, so I'll leave you to figure it out, but I don't think you'll fit it on the page without using two levels of index. 

Interesting as this might be in itself, we should be able to agree it is irrelevant to a weak solution of chess that consists of two drawing strategy. The reason is that it suffices that a strategy doesn't ever blunder away a basic rules chess loss. If the strategy ignores FIDE rules, the only surprise that can happen is that the game is unexpectedly drawn, which is the objective!

Constructing such a strategy is a challenge but only in the same way that it was in checkers (other than the size). While in both checkers and basic rules chess it is possible for two players to keep the game drawn and never simplify it down or end, checkers was solved by showing it was possible to either force a drawn tablebase position or to repeat an earlier position in the analysis tree. This works because to refute a drawing strategy the opponent has to be able to completely avoid both of these. No need to wait for a 3-times repetition or even to have a rule that such a repetition is a draw, since a strategy is shown to draw if you disprove the existence of a win for the opponent against it).

Elroch
MARattigan wrote:
tygxc wrote:

The 110 draws out of 110 games of the ongoing ICCF WC Finals are examples of optimal play by both sides and constitute at least part of a weak solution of Chess.

No they aren't and no they don't.

Moreover it is redundant, as it shows several strategies to achieve the game-theoretic value instead of the required one.

It's only redundant if you and your opponent agree always to play only a proper subset of these 110 games.

@tygxc:

"chess has been solved - we have 5000 drawing moves from the latest ICCF snoozefest so we don't need to worry about dealing with as many as 10^40 other positions.

In fact it's better than that. The moves are not consistent with being in just one strategy for each side, so we actually have an even smaller number of moves from each of several alternative incompatible drawing strategies for each side, which may be even more incomplete, but it is more redundant!"

(paraphrased)

[And yes, we certainly don't really even know all of those positions are drawing. Especially the first one]

Jared

https://www.chess.com/forum/view/general/chess-will-never-be-solved-heres-why?page=1#comment-66772169

That's probably the most downvotes that I've seen.

playerafar
Luke-Jaywalker wrote:

it’s not his fault that argument after argument bit the dust.

The arguments against tygxc's positions all stand.
Its his positions that were always very dusty.
What has tygxc said right so far?
He has conceded that chess cannot be solved with current technology.
Regarding tygxc's obtuseness in avoiding the arguments made to him - such obtuseness is technically 'his fault'.
But 'fault' isn't the best word there.
Its his choice.
Some would argue that his obtuseness is 'trolling'.
I think that 'trolling' would be a word better describing the ten-year behaviour of @Optimissed - not tygxc.

BigChessplayer665
Cirrin wrote:
playerafar wrote:

I think that 'trolling' would be a word better describing the ten-year behaviour of @Optimissed - not tygxc.

true

Did optimissed get muted again he hadn't been online recently

purpledragon345678
playerafar
BigChessplayer665 wrote:
Cirrin wrote:
playerafar wrote:

I think that 'trolling' would be a word better describing the ten-year behaviour of @Optimissed - not tygxc.

true

Did optimissed get muted again he hadn't been online recently

Optimissed has gone very quiet. Suddenly.
Has not been online on chess.com for three days.
Maybe decided he couldn't afford three mutes.
Maybe finally realized to take a rest like fester suggested to him.
During O's absence - HP becoming very shrill and strident.
HP refers to a member literally named " @hapless_fool "
I kid you not. That really is his account name.
Regarding O - not hard to guess his likely strategies.
He will let tygxc 'take the heat' for now.
But it won't work because tygxc has shown he is not fragile and delicate -
and can hold his head up and take all kinds of heat while O - that's Optimissed - constantly panics and trolls when opposed.
Does O likely have an alt to watch these forums for him - while HP shills for him in another forum ?
O likes to accuse people of having alt accounts.
And he constantly projects.
Suggests that that is what he's doing.
If its not - I don't care either way.
There's a difference between passivity and not caring.