1...Qh6
2. Bf7++ Kf8
3. Qg8+ Ke7
4. Qe8#
Could you please explain this puzzle to me
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1...Qh6? 2.Bf7+ Kf8 3.Qg8+ Ke7 4.Qe8#
Thanks a lot for a quick reply. There was very little chance for me to solve this. Four move tactics I can figure out maybe 10% of the time. I need to practice more puzzles because in the actual game I don't think I would figure this out even in CC with 14days/move.
Thanks again
Nov 30, 2012
0
#6
6 minutes ago·Quote·#4
«Thanks a lot for a quick reply. There was very little chance for me to solve this. Four move tactics I can figure out maybe 10% of the time. I need to practice more puzzles because in the actual game I don't think I would figure this out even in CC with 14days/move.»
Sometimes a good way to find out is to ask oneself the following question: If W was given a free move, what would he / she play?
Regards,
Sylvain
[COMMENT DELETED] Try bxp+,qh6,bxp+,kxb,----here a q.pin is possible and black has a pawn passed. White q.f3 (?) p.a4....if u can simplify black k. can stop e pawn., while white k. can not stop a. pawn
Could you please explain this puzzle to me. This move sequence was presented as a solution and I am not sure why black has to take the bishop. Why not 1.Bxg6 Qh6 2. Bxh7 Kxh7. I tested this puzzle online and the engine I used also plays 1.. Qxg6 with great advantage to white but when I play 1.. Qh6 and analyzed from there advantage for white is greatly reduced according to engine.
Could someone please explain why 1.. Qh6 is bad move here? I droped 1. Bxg6 as a candidate move when I was trying to solve the puzzle because I can not see why 1.. Qxg6 is "mandatory" here.
Thanks in advance