Is there such thing as "luck" in chess?

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cadmiumpatzer

If two identical computers play chess (however powerful) and one beats another, is it lucky? Luck requires a payoff of sorts (either fortune or adverse), by definition those machines are no more affected than playerafar's IO example, and he said there was no luck in that case because there is nothing there to "care" about the outcome. Is the chess those machines played any less chess than when played by sentient competitors? Why is "chess" in one case different than the other? Defining "chess" requiring human competitors is critical for the "luck" argument to have any traction at all afaic. Otoh, regardless of who or what is choosing moves, the game itself is the same and have objective outcomes, it's only the consequence of those outcomes having a "payoff" a playing agent experiences to be classified as "lucky" or not. The no-luck people are arguing from the mathematics of data structure and transformation rules (as chess) since that operation does not require humans to be involved to get game legal outcomes. It doesn't matter that it was "designed" with humans as the only computational agent available originally, the mathematical consequences of those rules was the same then as it is now.

playerafar

"If two identical computers play chess (however powerful) and one beats another, is it lucky?"
Nobody knows that there are not 'forced wins' from the first move - by either side.
In other words chess is not solved.
So it could be a win and 'not lucky' or it could be 'lucky' because one programmer didn't program his computer well enough.
Or didn't have an equal computer.
Or the time limits on moves wasn't enough or not suitable for the programming he was using.
-----------------------
One could also consider the issue of how the computers are programmed to 'play for the win' or 'play for the draw' ...
So its not simple.

DiogenesDue
llama_l wrote:

What makes it hard for a human is they don't play randomly. So if there are 3 reasonable moves, the beginner might have a 0% chances of playing them under the condition that the beginner is trying to play well. This is because playing well requires you to reject moves on certain criteria that will rarely (but sometimes) reject good moves as well. The less skilled the player, the more often they will reject good moves.

A random move generator has a better chance of beating Carlsen than a 1200 rated player.

I would agree there.

Took that photo at a dollar store recently ...

oh-no-my-knight

what do we define by luck?

playerafar
ChishTheFish wrote:
Really? I don’t think so. A 1200 rated player is bound to recognize some tactics that Magnus might play. A random move generator, will play, random moves! It’ll probably get checkmated in 10 moves.

I disagree.
The human playing non-randomly just sets up Magnus even more powerfully as he will be extremely likely to 'know what that player is doing'.
It makes the weaker players chances even worse.
Strong human players often think 'why did he make that move?' and so often they're right - especially against weaker players.
This increases the advantage of the stronger player even more.
As for superstrong engines would they be programmed with 'why did he make that move?' Unlikely.
Where the engines are stronger is the Implications of a move rather than 'why'.

playerafar
ChishTheFish wrote:
So you are saying that the random moves will confuse him?

Nobody said that.

Paul1e4

Recently one of my opponents hung his queen even though he was not under time pressure. So I got lucky. Luck exists in chess.

BigChessplayer665
playerafar wrote:
ChishTheFish wrote:
So you are saying that the random moves will confuse him?

Nobody said that.

It does confuse people tho it's not always a good strategy tho

BigChessplayer665
ChishTheFish wrote:
No, that was skill.

For his opponent maybe but for him you wouldn't be expecting that type of blunder it's more luck when your opponent makes random blunder rather than skill it's not like you can force your opponent to blunder (well you can but not that type of queen hang )

mpaetz

Making a losing blunder is a case of lack of or improper application of skill.

BigChessplayer665
mpaetz wrote:

Making a losing blunder is a case of lack of or improper application of skill.

Usually the luckier you are the more you don't have to apply skill to win sometimes wins involved almost no skill at all and just getting lucky with checkmates in one for you it might be lucky but for your opponent it's skill the only skill you can control is your own having no luck at all would imply that you can control all your opponents responded

DiogenesDue

There are several variants of luck vs. skill belief here:

No luck

Random selection of moves is luck

Random events happening *to* players is luck

Decisions made *by* players are luck

Decisions made only by opponent are luck, but only to the other player

playerafar

'luck' is not a belief though.
Its a reality.
Like beauty - ugliness - happiness - dismay and so on.
But those are only realities for the living.

cadmiumpatzer
playerafar wrote:

"If two identical computers play chess (however powerful) and one beats another, is it lucky?"
Nobody knows that there are not 'forced wins' from the first move - by either side.
In other words chess is not solved.
So it could be a win and 'not lucky' or it could be 'lucky' because one programmer didn't program his computer well enough.
Or didn't have an equal computer.
Or the time limits on moves wasn't enough or not suitable for the programming he was using.
-----------------------
One could also consider the issue of how the computers are programmed to 'play for the win' or 'play for the draw' ...
So its not simple.

Maybe you didn't understand, the two computers (including the software) are identical. I'll repeat what you didn't address: Luck requires a payoff of sorts (either fortune or adverse), by definition those machines are no more affected than playerafar's IO example, and he said there was no luck in that case because there is nothing there to "care" about the outcome. Is the chess those machines played any less chess than when played by sentient competitors? Why is "chess" in one case different than the other?

playerafar

@cadmiumpatzer
My post wasn't just addressed to your post.
I don't operate that way.
I make my posts on my terms.
So that means my post addressed both the context of your post and beyond it too.
Get it now? Understand?
Why would you assume that I would post on your terms?
And all that bold print means you're getting more upset.
Uh oh.

ImTrashLOL_91

Yes, it's how I win all my games.

playerafar
ImTrashLOL_91 wrote:

Yes, it's how I win all my games.

You don't.
You've lost four straight.
happy

LeeEuler
cadmiumpatzer wrote:
playerafar wrote:

"If two identical computers play chess (however powerful) and one beats another, is it lucky?"
Nobody knows that there are not 'forced wins' from the first move - by either side.
In other words chess is not solved.
So it could be a win and 'not lucky' or it could be 'lucky' because one programmer didn't program his computer well enough.
Or didn't have an equal computer.
Or the time limits on moves wasn't enough or not suitable for the programming he was using.
-----------------------
One could also consider the issue of how the computers are programmed to 'play for the win' or 'play for the draw' ...
So its not simple.

Maybe you didn't understand, the two computers (including the software) are identical. I'll repeat what you didn't address: Luck requires a payoff of sorts (either fortune or adverse), by definition those machines are no more affected than playerafar's IO example, and he said there was no luck in that case because there is nothing there to "care" about the outcome. Is the chess those machines played any less chess than when played by sentient competitors? Why is "chess" in one case different than the other?

To wit: "Why is a machine that always flips a fair coin to land 'heads up' any different than a human that attempts to flip a fair coin to land 'heads up'? Why is 'flipping a coin' in one case different than the other?"

cadmiumpatzer
playerafar wrote:

@cadmiumpatzer
My post wasn't just addressed to your post.
I don't operate that way.
I make my posts on my terms.
So that means my post addressed both the context of your post and beyond it too.
Get it now? Understand?
Why would you assume that I would post on your terms?
And all that bold print means you're getting more upset.
Uh oh.

lol, no, I was trying to call attention to what you don't respond to. Just saying your post addresses more than one thing doesn't mean that it does. If you avoid answering direct questions directly, it might make one think you are reluctant to answer. I have no emotional attachment to the contents of this thread, I just see ships passing in the night. I was merely pointing out your own statements about inanimate objects not being capable of luck in your distinction between luck and unpredictability, if you remember and highlighting a similar situation in the "game" of "chess" as the terms are being carelessly thrown about. Get it now? Understand?

MaetsNori
mpaetz wrote:

Making a losing blunder is a case of lack of or improper application of skill.

Agreed. Though, that can be viewed as good fortune for your opponent.

"Luckily for me, my opponent wasn't playing too well that day ..."