1. Why is it a loss of tempo, when white uses 1 tempo to capture c5 anyway?
Its a loss of a temp because black has moved the bishop twice, when he could have used the move to develop another piece. Now say that black plays something like ...Nc6, white plays dc5, and then black plays Bc5. That is not the loss of a tempo.
2. How does black avoid this? c5xd4 and then develop bishop?
There are some openings, like the Queens Gambit, where it cannot be avoided.
Hi All
I was watching a video where a GM mentioned off-hand details about tempo regarding a bishop development. When black plays c5, it's of course favorable for black if white captures, following Bxc5, developing the bishop. This makes sense to me
The GM said, however that once the bishop moves (e.g. Be7) only then it is favorable for white to capture c5, moving the bishop a second time. I have a few questions
1. Why is it a loss of tempo, when white uses 1 tempo to capture c5 anyway?
2. How does black avoid this? c5xd4 and then develop bishop?
Note: I not contesting a GM's knowledge I am simply wanting to fully understand this. Please keep your help contained in the questions posed.
Thanks!