MAR
3 fold repetition is a draw if someone claims the draw. So if White plays Rf7 on the first move--it is not an error as the win is still forced.
Threefold repetition has not been one of the basic rules of chess since 2017. It remains in the competition rules. So the situation is different depending on whether competition rules are in effect or not.
When you say Rf7 is not an error on the first move you are repeating part of what I said. I stipulated a game under Basic Rules only, otherwise Rf7 would be an error if it allowed a claim under the threefold repetition rule.
The term "perfect moves" is a rather ambiguous term. Better would be to make a correct move or a move that does not change the theoretical result of the game for the worse,
I'm easy what you call it. We agree on the meaning. The term "perfect move" has been used in the discussion to date, apparently on the assumption that "best play from both sides" (in OP's phrase) means both sides make only correct moves. I was just pointing out that under basic rules, that is a necessary, but not sufficient, criterion for best play.
In the game described all moves by the players are correct, but White fails to win from a winning position, so his play is not best.
Either version of chess will result in a draw when neither side makes an error which would change the result of the game.
The previous sentence is not justified on two counts. Mainly you have assumed without proof that the game starts in a theoretically drawn position in both versions of chess. This is what OP was asking. Also in the basic version where there is no finite limitation on the sequence of moves it may be possible (as above) for neither side to make an error that would change the result of the game, yet that result does not occur.
Yes, grand masters know a heck a lot of about chess that the average played does not dream of and that is why some average players discount the knowledge and experience of the top players. Remember for decades the top checker players declared that game a draw with optimum play and many not so talented players declared that the top players could not "know" this as checker was too math complex. But after checkers was solved via math it turned out that the top players had been correct all along and, in fact, had played thousands of "perfect" ["optimum"] games.
Generalising from a sample of one is neither scientific nor logical.
I have no idea why MAR seems to think it is very likely that White has a win from the original 32 piece starting position??? There are numerous reasons the top players believe the theoretical result of a chess game played with no errors is a draw.
I have no idea why I seem to think that either. I didn't say it anywhere.
What I said was, "It seems then very likely that if there is a win for either side in the 32 man starting position without the 50 move rule in force there is a strong possibility it would disappear if the 50 move rule were in force". I think you may have overlooked the first occurrence of the word "if".
This thread is long on opinions and short on facts.
One fact that I find significant is that as the skill level of the two players increases (eg: from Beginner vs Beginner, -to- 1200 vs 1200, -to- 2000 vs 2000, -to- 2400 vs 2400, -to- 2700 vs 2700) the percentage of draws steadily increases; until at the very top echelons of the game (the most recent World Championship match, for example) it's possible for every single game in the chess event to end in a draw.
To me, this hints that with "perfect play" on both sides, a draw is the valid outcome.