2 moves white to move
assuming it is white player in the bottom side...its a mate in 3.
1.Qd5 Bg3 2.Be6+ Bxe6 3.Qxe6#. there are other 3 move mates as well, but as far as i see no mate in 2.
I think that this might work:
1. Rf to e8 (with the threat of Re8 to e4#) Bxe8 2. Be6#
OR
1. Qd5 Bg3 2. Qf3#
OR
1. Qd5 Bc6 2. Be6#
eir44, this is poorly set out. Is white at the bottom or the top?
Assuming white is at the bottom (which is the normal convention), then there are several moves that seem to work: Bc3 or Bc4 both threaten mate with the B(either Bd1# or Be2#); black's only countermove would be with the B(d7)c6 so that he can intervene and ruin mate in two, but that would be met with Qf5# or Be6#. So the puzzle has multiple solutions.
The same threat works if we assume black is at the bottom; the only "new" moves are the black pawns at a4 and b4, and neither of them changes the basic mate threat by the white B.
1. Qa4 Bxa4
2. Be6#
---------------
1. Qa4 1... any
2. Qxd7#, 2. Qd1# (Depends on blacks move)
I believe that fails to 1 ... Ke6
2 Be6+ Kg6
2 Qc2+ kf6
Rh8 is the move.
After 1. Qa4, black may play any move, any move, any move, any move.
The mate follows by these moves (depending on blacks move) :
1...Bxa4 2. Be6+#
1...Kf5 2. Bxh5+#2.
1...Bg3, Bf2, Be1 2. Qxd7+#
1...Bc8, Be6, Bf5 2. Qd1+# o
I didn`t get it
or is there something wrong with this board..I mean it`s probably easy to mate in this situation, but none of the logical moves wasn`t in the solvation of this puzzle..i give up
After 1. Qa4, black may play any move, any move, any move, any move.
The mate follows by these moves (depending on blacks move) :
1...Bxa4 2. Be6+#
1...Kf5 2. Bxh5+#2.
1...Bg3, Bf2, Be1 2. Qxd7+#
1...Bc8, Be6, Bf5 2. Qd1+# o
Yes, you da man! Ra8 fails to Bg3.