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nobody says 'half-move,' 'half-move' is incorrect. this is a 'mate in one' i.e. 'one move' BigDogg, 50 move rule refers to 50 moves on both sides. they use that term to place emphasis on the 50th move for a player 'white or black' to claim a drawn position. if they said '100 move rule,' it wouldn't reference a particular person's 50th move.
'half-move,' however is non-sensical. it is mate in 1, not mate in .5 moves. half-move would reference the opponent's move after he has already been checkmated, which obviously makes no sense.
Sorry, your post is not coherent enough for a reply.
well that was a reply. i think what is really going on is that you don't have a good enough reply or won't admit you are wrong. but that is a great strategy to save your ego ;) Feel free to ask me to clarify specific sections, but i know you won't Instead just pretend my post made absolutely no sense or that you are 10 times smarter than me.
However, "Mate in one move" can mean either 1 or 2 plies. It's as correct as a joke problem can be.
If the joke is based on non-chess terminology, in other words, a changed definition of a move in chess, then yes.
Mate in one is always a one ply, because a player cannot mate himself.
In a retro, it may black to move and every move he has falls into a mate. 2 ply for a mate in one.
not much of a problem...
I bet you have never seen one.
1. e4 Nf6 2.Nf3 Ng8 3.Ng5 Nf6 4.Qf3 Ng8 5.Bc4: Now it is black to play and mate in 2 (plies). A very deep problem! I bet you cannot solve it. lol
On the other hand, if you're talking about self mate problems, I've seen plenty of those.
"No" would have saved you so much typing. :)
A swear finish castling checkmate
It's fine. I'm the one of the fastest! U should check out my coaching thread. Typed that up that first post in just a few minutes.
If it's going to be 0-0 as whites move the question is what the last black's move was???