Most Difficult Mate in 1 ?

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dashkee94

The first one is Qg5#, the second is Qb7#, a legal move unless the position is set up wrong.

2f3
dashkee94 wrote:

The first one is Qg5#, the second is Qb7#, a legal move unless the position is set up wrong.

Qg5+ Kf8

dashkee94

How does the k go to f8 with a white bishop on h6?

nochewycandy
dashkee94 wrote:

The first one is Qg5#, the second is Qb7#, a legal move unless the position is set up wrong.

dashkee unfortunately Qg5 is not mate because of Qcxg5!

dashkee94

Good spot!  I only looked at the one q at e5.

ahmt92

sckleene, ı think d8=Q+ is also correct and this move provides mate in 1

Scottrf

d8=Q is illegal since the pawn is pinned on the diagonal.

EDB123

the answer is d8=Q#

Scottrf
EDB123 wrote:

the answer is d8=Q#

Bxh3

creammonster360

That's easy. Rxe5#.

creammonster360

nvm

Scottrf

It's amazing how many wrong answers you get after the answer is given.

BigDoggProblem
caveatcanis wrote:
BigDoggProblem wrote:
Scottrf wrote:
BigDoggProblem wrote:
Scottrf wrote:

I disagree.

 

All hail the chess.com PGN viewer.

You typed in the move. I simply copied the FEN and made a move. Big difference.

I could easily have done the same in WinBoard, which allows me to turn off legality checking. But that's not the point. The point is that 1.Qb7 is not legal.

The position isn't legal, is it?

Black has made 3 pawn captures, and White is missing two pawns and a light-squared bishop.

White has made at least 2 pawn captures, and Black is missing a light-squared bishop, rook and knight.

Now how did the black pawn end up on f2? It must have come via h4 and g3 (we don't have enough captures available for anything more exotic).

So it must have captured two pieces on black squares, which means that:

(1) White must have promoted both his a and b pawns. (This also means that White has actually played 3 pawn captures.)

(2) White's white-squared bishop must have been captured on a6.

How did the bishop get to a6? White must have played g3 to release the bishop, then later played g4 and (after the Black pawn has reached f2) hxg3.

So what was Black's last move? It can't be a capture or a pawn move, because we've accounted for those already.

Qc8d7 doesn't work because there's no previous move for White (how did he give the rook check?).

Similarly Kc8c7 doesn''t work because White can't give the queen check on a8 without a capture-and-promotion, and we've already accounted for all the captures.

"When you have eliminated the impossible, whatever remains, however improbable, must be the truth." -S. Holmes

BigDoggProblem
dashkee94 wrote:

The first one is Qg5#, the second is Qb7#, a legal move unless the position is set up wrong.

Actually, no. The position is set up correctly, yet Qb7 is not legal.

Frankwho

I think it's black's move. Against everything black can play, white has mate in 1.

Scottrf

Na it can't be black's move.

EDB123

It's white's move, If it is a mate in 1 for white.

Scottrf
Frankwho wrote:

I think it's black's move. Against everything black can play, white has mate in 1.

That's probably the idea, but if so it's set up wrong.

Frankwho
Scottrf wrote:
Frankwho wrote:

I think it's black's move. Against everything black can play, white has mate in 1.

That's probably the idea, but if so it's set up wrong.

I was thinking that "set up wrong" means that the only thing that's wrong is that the pieces are on the wrong squares.

Scottrf
Frankwho wrote:
Scottrf wrote:
Frankwho wrote:

I think it's black's move. Against everything black can play, white has mate in 1.

That's probably the idea, but if so it's set up wrong.

I was thinking that "set up wrong" means that the only thing that's wrong is that the pieces are on the wrong squares.

Just that the FEN is Q2bRBNN/K1kqRpp1/p1Prp3/p1pp4/6P1/5PP1/2P1Pp2/7n w - - 0 1

The w means white to move.