Does the inverse cosine function have an actual domain of all real numbers?

Sort:
Avatar of Trexler3241

I want to know your thoughts... about this.

Avatar of IMKeto

2+2=4

Unless you're taking "common core", then either 3, or 5 is close enough to be credited with a correct answer.

Avatar of Trexler3241

No answers so far...

Avatar of ChristianBC

The cosine of any real number exists and is always between -1 and 1. Now if you take a value within ]-1,1[ and ask what real number it can be the cosine of, there are 2 possible answers within each 2π interval, so that is a lot. And cos(2kπ)=1 and cos((2k+1)π)=-1 for any integer k.

We usually restrict the inverse cosine graph to such an interval as to have a functional relation, that is from 0 to π.