Because 2.e3 is garbage, hemming in the Dark-Squared Bishop.
Black has no reason to play 2...e6 at all! If White plays a more intelligent move, like 2.c4, PRESSURING d5, only then would Black play something like 2...e6, guarding the d5-pawn and hemming his own Light-squared Bishop in.
But if you are going to do nothing and play 2.e3?!, why do I have any need to play 2...e6? I don't is the correct answer. You have ZERO pressure on d5, so why not play a less committal move like 2...Nf6?
As White, you should play 2.c4 rather than 2.e3?!. This will entice Black to play 2...e6, hemming in the Bishop on c8. After 1.d4 d5 2.c4 e6 3.Nc3 Nf6, you can play 4.Bg5!, getting the Bishop outside the pawn chain before playing 5.e3.
As the title says: why, after 1.d4 d5 2.e3 do you mostly see Nf6 being played and not e6? I was expecting that e6 would be played just as often as Nf6, transposing to QGD territory anyway, like in the diagram, but there is something else going on here...