the data set only has 10 samples on which to draw so the odds are probably not terrifically acurate
Why is this such a better position for White?
Presumably the move order was 1. e4 c5 2. Nf3 d6 3. d4 cxd4 4. Nxd4 Nc6 and now white plays the silly 5. Nf3.
the data set only has 10 samples on which to draw so the odds are probably not terrifically acurate
No, because it clearly says white to move
Are you being stupid on purpose. Many a time, people forget to change that option. I do it now and again (which forces me to remake the diagram, as I refuse to incorporate errors into my posts).
I don't know what database you are using, but take these results from 365chess.com
**This is all assuming that it is really black to move.

Although these results are most likely not casual, and depend more on the skills of the two players. After the knight retreat, the position is probably equal so it will be expected for black to score better in the database as it is likely that only weaker white players unfamiliar with the sicilian would choose that line.

I was playing around with the "game explorer" and I ran into the following puzzling fact: given the following position, plays will tie 30% of the time, White wins 60% of the time, and Black only wins a meager 10% of the time.
Granted, the data set only has 10 samples on which to draw so the odds are probably not terrifically acurate, but it still looks dismal for Black despite the fact that hes gained tempo over White.
What is so bad about that position for Black?