Chess will never be solved, here's why

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MARattigan
Elroch wrote:
MARattigan wrote:
Elroch wrote:
Optimissed wrote:


I was also going to explain why game theory cannot apply to the solving of chess... [snip]

Go on, give us a treat. Perhaps afterwards you can explain why number theory does not apply to the number 213276247234766621.

I think @Optimissed might be right this time.

Under FIDE laws possible yields include but are arguably not restricted to (win,loss), (loss,win), (draw,draw), (win+draw,loss+draw), (loss+draw,win+draw), (win,win), (win+draw,win+draw) and (arbiter determined) without any ordering specified. The objective is checkmate but that cannot be forced except from positions that are already checkmate.

What part of game theory would apply?

Still thinking about 213276247234766621; don't tell me. It's not prime but it has abnormally few factors.

While I understand that you are being light-hearted, you understand that "solving chess" refers unambiguously to the abstract game of chess (or, to be precise, a version of it defined by the relevant rule set), which has no time limits, nothing happening off the board, but may include well-defined rules such as the option (or obligation) to claim a draw in an n-times repeated position, or when the 50 move rule applies.

No arbiters ever the chance to get involved any more than they do in the solution of tic-tac-toe  - the only laws involved are those that govern legal moving and results.

Yes and no. What are the abstract rules? The complexity of solving one set of abstract rules may be very different from another, so it seems to me that question needs to be addressed before commenting on OP's question.

It could be that an abstract game based on basic rules will eventually be solved by human ingenuity while an abstract game based on  competition rules proves too difficult.

And if you plan to use a GUI/Stockfish combination in solving, you do have an arbiter; it's the GUI. You also have a concrete set of rules.

Elroch
MARattigan wrote:
Elroch wrote:
MARattigan wrote:
Elroch wrote:
Optimissed wrote:


I was also going to explain why game theory cannot apply to the solving of chess... [snip]

Go on, give us a treat. Perhaps afterwards you can explain why number theory does not apply to the number 213276247234766621.

I think @Optimissed might be right this time.

Under FIDE laws possible yields include but are arguably not restricted to (win,loss), (loss,win), (draw,draw), (win+draw,loss+draw), (loss+draw,win+draw), (win,win), (win+draw,win+draw) and (arbiter determined) without any ordering specified. The objective is checkmate but that cannot be forced except from positions that are already checkmate.

What part of game theory would apply?

Still thinking about 213276247234766621; don't tell me. It's not prime but it has abnormally few factors.

While I understand that you are being light-hearted, you understand that "solving chess" refers unambiguously to the abstract game of chess (or, to be precise, a version of it defined by the relevant rule set), which has no time limits, nothing happening off the board, but may include well-defined rules such as the option (or obligation) to claim a draw in an n-times repeated position, or when the 50 move rule applies.

No arbiters ever the chance to get involved any more than they do in the solution of tic-tac-toe  - the only laws involved are those that govern legal moving and results.

Yes and no. What are the abstract rules?

Correct. We have discussed the difference in this problem for various rule sets.

The complexity of solving one set of abstract rules may be very different from another, so it seems to me that question needs to be addressed before commenting on OP's question.

The first point is true. I have referred to a relatively simple version of chess which has a 50 move rule and no 3-fold repetition rule. This is the least complex (using FEN positions which are only moderately more numerous (factor of 50) than basic chess. I have also discussed the huge state space of chess with a repetition rule but argued that this can be sidestepped for the purpose of solution as optimal strategies with basic chess rules only repeat positions when they are not trying to win).

It could be argued that there is a simpler purely abstract version of chess with no 50 move rule or repetition rule where games can be infinite and an infinite game is a draw. This is slightly less complex as the half-move count can be omitted from the state space. Of course, the lack of a 50 move rule may change the optimality of strategies, but I confidently believe (without proof) there are single strategies that are optimal for this version and the two others.

It could be that an abstract game based on basic rules will eventually be solved by human ingenuity while an abstract game based on  competition rules proves too difficult.

I believe not for the reasons expressed above.

And if you plan to use a GUI/Stockfish combination in solving, you do have an arbiter; it's the GUI. You also have a concrete set of rules.

But do you have a point? wink.png
[And why would you think I would do that??]

 

Elroch

And now I will enjoy my run...

tygxc

@5344
"a relatively simple version of chess which has a 50 move rule and no 3-fold repetition rule"
++ This is all besides the question.

The 3-fold repetition rule is vital. Chess might even be a win for white if repetition were forbidden like in Stratego or Go. The repetition rule is a major drawing mechanism and occurs in 16% of perfect games in ICCF WC draws.

The 50-moves rule plays no role. It is never invoked in perfect games in ICCF WC draws.
The same solution of chess without 50-moves rule also applies to chess with 50-moves rule.
If chess is solved with 50-moves rule, then that solution does not need the 50-moves rule, so that same solution also applies to chess without 50-moves rule.

DiogenesDue
MARattigan wrote:

Yes and no. What are the abstract rules? The complexity of solving one set of abstract rules may be very different from another, so it seems to me that question needs to be addressed before commenting on OP's question.

It could be that an abstract game based on basic rules will eventually be solved by human ingenuity while an abstract game based on  competition rules proves too difficult.

And if you plan to use a GUI/Stockfish combination in solving, you do have an arbiter; it's the GUI. You also have a concrete set of rules.

Ermm, no.  First, you can't use Stockfish in solving anyway, because it is incapable of evaluating perfect play.  Second, a GUI, that is, the user interface, would certainly not be an arbiter of any kind wink.png.

The rules of competition/tournament chess are an adjunct set of rules added on to handle pairings, avoid days or weeks long games, etc.  Solving chess is solving the basic game and its ruleset.  If you want to solve it by retrograde analysis (tablebase), then the 50 move rule or 3-fold repetition is not required.  If you want to solve it going forwards, you have to handle repetitions/circular positions, and need some criteria for moving on with analysis, ergo the 3-fold repetition rule is as good as any, but the mechanism is also not required to follow any particular rule which is external to chess.  

I wouldn't consider chess fully solved if the 50 move rule is applied, and given the processing power already required, I don't see that throwing it in the mix gives much benefit.  The choice of 50 moves is not scientific, it is arbitrarily chosen to give a human impression of exhaustion of possibilities.  In a situation where the 50 move rule could come into play for solving, you probably have one piece that either needs to reach a particular square, or a piece that needs to be forced to a particular square, so right there a 32 or 64 move rule already fits better wink.png.

MARattigan
Elroch wrote:
MARattigan wrote:
Elroch wrote:
Optimissed wrote:


I was also going to explain why game theory cannot apply to the solving of chess... [snip]

Go on, give us a treat. Perhaps afterwards you can explain why number theory does not apply to the number 213276247234766621.

I think @Optimissed might be right this time.

Under FIDE laws possible yields include but are arguably not restricted to (win,loss), (loss,win), (draw,draw), (win+draw,loss+draw), (loss+draw,win+draw), (win,win), (win+draw,win+draw) and (arbiter determined) without any ordering specified. The objective is checkmate but that cannot be forced except from positions that are already checkmate.

What part of game theory would apply?

Still thinking about 213276247234766621; don't tell me. It's not prime but it has abnormally few factors.

While I understand that you are being light-hearted, you understand that "solving chess" refers unambiguously to the abstract game of chess (or, to be precise, a version of it defined by the relevant rule set), which has no time limits, nothing happening off the board, but may include well-defined rules such as the option (or obligation) to claim a draw in an n-times repeated position, or when the 50 move rule applies.

No arbiters ever the chance to get involved any more than they do in the solution of tic-tac-toe  - the only laws involved are those that govern legal moving and results.

If I recall, the only appeal to game theory that has taken place in this forum was to a general theorem that applies to a class of games to which chess belongs. Given the definitions:

  1. A (pure) strategy for a side is defined as a procedure that generates a move for any legal position (note that a mixed strategy is one where it may vary the chosen move in a position, but we don't need these).
  2. The value of a strategy is the minimum of the values it achieves against all opposing strategies
  3. An optimal strategy for a side is a strategy that achieves the maximum of the values of all strategies for a side

then there exists an optimal strategy for each side and these strategies achieve the same result.

I'd like this theorem to be trivial, but when trying to show it was, I convinced myself it is not quite! The theorem seems to rely on the fact that every game is finite, for example.

My point is that "chess" generally refers to one of the games defined in the FIDE laws. Because they allow for resignation and agreed draws which occur asynchronoulsy with the moves and the results are are not prioritised in terms of win draw or loss either between themselves or with the results of completed moves, the possible results have no defined order. Is (win,win) for White better or worse than (win,draw) or (win,loss)?

You say:

"1. A (pure) strategy for a side is defined as a procedure that generates a move for any legal position ..."

Where do claims come in? Those are part of chess. A good strategy should generate a draw claim under the 50 move rule at some point if the opponent has a frustrated win. (It should also accept a draw offer in a losing position, but that would be extending the meaning of "solution".)

2. The value of a strategy is the minimum of the values it achieves against all opposing strategies.

There can only be a minimum if the results are ordered. They're not under FIDE rules.

Ergo game theory doesn't apply to chess. It could as you say be applied to abstract version of "chess" that differ only marginally from the FIDE games. 

But you define only a solution. If you want to propose finding a solution using existing software (as does @tygxc) the software will implement a concrete version of chess which also differs marginally from FIDE.

_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Correct. We have discussed the difference in this problem for various rule sets.

Where in the thread has there been an explicit definition of any ruleset other than the FIDE laws? 

The first point is true. I have referred to a relatively simple version of chess which has a 50 move rule and no 3-fold repetition rule. 

But the 50 move rule by itself hardly constitutes a game. What are the rest of the rules?

And how many people would call it chess? It could, maybe, fall under USCF basic rules where the 50 move rule and triple repetition rules can individually be optionally chosen from the tournament rules where they occur but you're still left without a solvable game.

I have also discussed the huge state space of chess with a repetition rule but argued that this can be sidestepped for the purpose of solution as optimal strategies with basic chess rules only repeat positions when they are not trying to win).

The question is not about the nature of a solution but about solving. In a solution along the lines of the checkers solution the engine doesn't know whether it's trying to win or not. I guesses and if it guesses wrong it can draw positions it could have won or lose positions it could have drawn. Would not avoiding repetition simply give wrong results?

This is slightly less complex as the half-move count can be omitted from the state space.

Try practising positions like this against Syzygy both ways and then tell me it's slightly less complex.

8/8/5N2/p7/8/k1K5/8/1N6 b - - 0 1 (for some reason the setup's decided to misbehave)

This position flakes out SF which assumes both rules.

 [FEN "7k/8/8/8/8/8/1R6/1K6 w - - 0 1"]

1. Ka1 Kh7 2. Kb1 Kg7 3. Ka1 Kf7 4. Kb1 Ke7 5. Ka1 Kd7 6. Kb1 Kd6 7. Ka1 Ke6 8.
Kb1 Kf6 9. Ka1 Kg6 10. Kb1 Kh6 11. Ka1 Kh5 12. Kb1 Kg5 13. Ka1 Kf5 14. Kb1 Ke5
15. Ka1 Kd4 16. Ka2 Kc3 17. Rh2 Kd4 18. Rb2 Kd3 19. Kb1 Kc3 20. Rh2 Kd4 21. Rb2
Kc3 22. Rh2 Kd4 23. Rb2 Kc3 24. Rg2 Kd3 25. Ka1 Kd4 26. Ra2 Kc3 27. Rg2 Kd4 28.
Ra2 Kc3 29. Rf2 Kd3 30. Rf1 Kd4 31. Rb1 Kc3 32. Rf1 Kd4 33. Rf2 Kc4 34. Rb2 Kd4
{Stockfish 15-martin} 35. Rb5 Kc4 36. Rh5 Kd4 37. Kb2 Kc4 38. Ra5 Kd4 39. Kb3
Ke3 40. Ra4 Kd3 41. Rb4 Kd2 42. Rd4+ Ke2 43. Kc3 Ke3 44. Kb4 Kxd4 

Of course, the lack of a 50 move rule may change the optimality of strategies, but I confidently believe (without proof) there are single strategies that are optimal for this version and the two others.

That's sounds hardly different from @tygxc's assertions that his ICCF games are perfect. I strongly doubt it. Do you have any basis for your confidence?

 

DiogenesDue

There's a difference between game theory and combinatorial game theory, as I pointed out long ago.  The entire reason that combinatorial game theory came to be is because of the distinction between the two directions each travels in.

Elroch said:

Game theory does not deal with probabilistic outcomes in games like chess (deterministic, perfect information).

I fail to see how that means he is championing game theory as the key to solving chess.  What I do see is that deciding that chess is *not* a game of perfect information is an attempt to turn the solving of chess into a religious belief.  It's objectively a game of perfect information.  The capability of human beings to absorb that perfect information does not factor in.

MARattigan

But it's not a zero sum game without some changes to the FIDE rules.

DiogenesDue

FIDE derives from Chess, not the other way around.  It's an illusion that FIDE controls the rules of the game.  It merely makes pronouncements and attempts to push chess players in one direction or another.  When they do not follow, FIDE is the entity that must amend itself wink.png.

The history of Chess is relatively FIDE-free when you look at it in total.

MARattigan

And it's had an awful lot of different versions each with its own solution.

I agree FIDE needs to get its act together regarding the rules. It can't be that difficult.

But have you ever come across any set of chess rules that defines a zero sum game?

DiogenesDue
Optimissed wrote:

Except that the information turns out to be less useful than perfect information should be.
It's analagous to having the information needed to determine a correct sequence of moves presented in a code, which cannot be broken: except, perhaps, with the help of the most powerful computers.

Your argument boils down to "it's hard to know things we don't know yet even when all the pieces are right in front of us".  Which is a statement, and it is true (literally, in the case of the pieces being right in front of us)...but it doesn't have much bearing on the discussion.  

DiogenesDue
Optimissed wrote:

That's what solving chess is all about, old bean. Is this discussion about solving chess? Can you do it in your head with 100% accuracy??

It has all the bearing on this discussion it requires, old thing.

You always give the point up when you try to inject dismissive humor.  It's like a tell in Poker.

mpaetz
Optimissed wrote:

  <<<I did NOT say that that I am CERTAIN that  1.e4  e5  2.Ba6  is lost for white.>>>

Funnily enough, although you did, I can no longer find the post to that effect. How strange.

     You can't find such a quote because it never existed. I did say I believe that  1.e4  e5  2.Ba6  is losing for white, but certainty is by definition "established beyond dispute", and I repeatedly admitted that it is possible I might be wrong. Unarguable proof is still lacking.

Elroch
MARattigan wrote:

But it's not a zero sum game without some changes to the FIDE rules.

Any FIDE rules that are not found in the pamphlet with a chess set that you might buy for a child are of no interest here.

It's about the legal moves and how a result is reached as a result of those moves. Those rules make the game finite and it can be assumed games are played to a finish.  This is in common with the entire academic literature relating to this class of games ("combinatorial games" as @btickler reminded us they were called)

mpaetz

     What you believe will not always prove to be true in the long run. You were the first to mention my supposed use of the term. I object to your putting words into my mouth and then chiding me for "saying" contradictory and/or incorrect statements, then publicly insinuating that I must be drunk, insane, or deviously deleting posts when I point out you are mistaken. However wonderful you think your memory may be, you are obviously wrong on this point.

     And if things were "better left to rest", what was the point of reiterating your unfounded claim? You seem to need to always have the last word in order to convince yourself of your mythical greater intelligence and understanding.  

     Let's see if you can actually practice what you preach and let this drop.

DiogenesDue
Optimissed wrote:

Oh yes, so you're contesting what is told on account of the language used to tell it? I don't think that quite works, sadly for your assumption.

"Old bean" and "old thing" are completely extraneous to the discussion and only serve to deflect from the fact that you had no answer for my previous post.  It's a common tactic...more common among the general public than claiming mental superiority, actually wink.png.  Your use of "contesting what is told" is a contortion you chose to avoid saying "contesting my argument", because then this answer which I am giving now becomes blatantly obvious...it's not part of your argument.

Carry on.

Elroch
MARattigan wrote:
Elroch wrote:
MARattigan wrote:
Elroch wrote:
Optimissed wrote:


I was also going to explain why game theory cannot apply to the solving of chess... [snip]

Go on, give us a treat. Perhaps afterwards you can explain why number theory does not apply to the number 213276247234766621.

I think @Optimissed might be right this time.

Under FIDE laws possible yields include but are arguably not restricted to (win,loss), (loss,win), (draw,draw), (win+draw,loss+draw), (loss+draw,win+draw), (win,win), (win+draw,win+draw) and (arbiter determined) without any ordering specified. The objective is checkmate but that cannot be forced except from positions that are already checkmate.

What part of game theory would apply?

Still thinking about 213276247234766621; don't tell me. It's not prime but it has abnormally few factors.

While I understand that you are being light-hearted, you understand that "solving chess" refers unambiguously to the abstract game of chess (or, to be precise, a version of it defined by the relevant rule set), which has no time limits, nothing happening off the board, but may include well-defined rules such as the option (or obligation) to claim a draw in an n-times repeated position, or when the 50 move rule applies.

No arbiters ever the chance to get involved any more than they do in the solution of tic-tac-toe  - the only laws involved are those that govern legal moving and results.

If I recall, the only appeal to game theory that has taken place in this forum was to a general theorem that applies to a class of games to which chess belongs. Given the definitions:

  1. A (pure) strategy for a side is defined as a procedure that generates a move for any legal position (note that a mixed strategy is one where it may vary the chosen move in a position, but we don't need these).
  2. The value of a strategy is the minimum of the values it achieves against all opposing strategies
  3. An optimal strategy for a side is a strategy that achieves the maximum of the values of all strategies for a side

then there exists an optimal strategy for each side and these strategies achieve the same result.

I'd like this theorem to be trivial, but when trying to show it was, I convinced myself it is not quite! The theorem seems to rely on the fact that every game is finite, for example.

My point is that "chess" generally refers to one of the games defined in the FIDE laws.

No, not when SOLVING chess. This is about the abstract game.

Because they allow for resignation and agreed draws

Both completely irrelevant to solving chess, just ways to save time in real, imperfect games before the rules decide the result.

which occur asynchronoulsy with the moves and the results are are not prioritised in terms of win draw or loss either beteen themselves or with the results of completed moves, the possible results have no defined order. Is (win,win) for White better or worse than (win,draw) or (win,loss)?

There are exactly three results of a game

WIN > DRAW > LOSS

ok?

You say:

"1. A (pure) strategy for a side is defined as a procedure that generates a move for any legal position ..."

Where do claims come in? Those are part of chess.

To solving chess, you can assume all claims occur by the player they favour. Equivalently, you can assume an automatic result. It's not about competitive play.

A good strategy should generate a draw claim under the 50 move rule at some point if the opponent has a frustrated win. (It should also accept a draw offer in a losing position, but that would be extending the meaning of "solution".)

No, that would simply be part of the solution. A side aiming for a draw claims the draw when it occurs (or equivalently for solution, it is automatic).

2. The value of a strategy is the minimum of the values it achieves against all opposing strategies.

There can only be a minimum if the results are ordered. They're not under FIDE rules.

I have no idea what you are thinking about. WIN > DRAW > LOSS.

Ergo game theory doesn't apply to chess.

A false conclusion based on erroneous thinking I can't fathom.

It could as you say be applied to abstract version of "chess" that differ only marginally from the FIDE games.

That's the chess that is relevant to solving chess. It ain't about imperfect tournament and match play (FIDE's preserve)

But you define only a solution. If you want to propose finding a solution using existing software (as does @tygxc) the software will implement a concrete version of chess which also differs marginally from FIDE.

What you really mean is that FIDE differs from chess.

 

DiogenesDue
Optimissed wrote:

You could always approach btickler and see what he has to say on the matter. I tried that approach with him probably eight years ago. He made a series of answers to the effect that he dislikes people and has no intention of being friends with anyone. He denies that now but that's what he does and that was his answer. So have a word with him and tell him not to be such a troll, maybe. Coming from someone else it may help. The present feud he has with me is the result of me doing what you just tried to do now, when he was attacking someone else. Well, I basically told him to stop.

That narrative is a complete fiction, for the record.  We have never had significant PMs of any kind.  You used to, on occasion, try to rope me into teaming up with you on other posters, but once it became clear to you that I don't respond to such games, you stopped trying to ingratiate yourself with me and moved on to those with less integrity.

Optimissed lives in a world determined by his ego's best efforts to shield him from the truth of how he actually feels not about everybody else, but about himself.  That's really the whole story right there.  If you read his posts with this lens, you will never misunderstand his intentions, and everything he says will fall neatly into place.

DiogenesDue
Optimissed wrote:

Who said PMs? And not my games. Yours.

You did, the last half dozen times you tried to foist this fiction.  Apparently your memory is slipping...

Your post then became (additions in bold):

"Who said PMs? And not my games. Yours. I am sure that all is not well with you and that you habitually project your own insecurities on others. Ultimately you always end up accusing THEM of projection. There isn't any doubt about it at all. Bonkers. Completely."

...and then that post became:

"Was that for the dishonest, refabricated, invented record?

Anyway, who said PMs? And not my games. Yours. I am sure that all is not well with you and that you habitually project your own insecurities on others. Ultimately you always end up accusing THEM of projection. There isn't any doubt about it at all. Bonkers. Completely."

Note that you can keep adding more aspersions and deflections to it...it's not going to help.  It's kind of funny because I am prone to adding new points and clarifying things, but when you attempt to do the same you add gibberish and obfuscation.  We default to different goals in our communications.

MARattigan
Elroch wrote:
MARattigan wrote:
Elroch wrote:
MARattigan wrote:
Elroch wrote:
Optimissed wrote:


I was also going to explain why game theory cannot apply to the solving of chess... [snip]

Go on, give us a treat. Perhaps afterwards you can explain why number theory does not apply to the number 213276247234766621.

I think @Optimissed might be right this time.

Under FIDE laws possible yields include but are arguably not restricted to (win,loss), (loss,win), (draw,draw), (win+draw,loss+draw), (loss+draw,win+draw), (win,win), (win+draw,win+draw) and (arbiter determined) without any ordering specified. The objective is checkmate but that cannot be forced except from positions that are already checkmate.

What part of game theory would apply?

Still thinking about 213276247234766621; don't tell me. It's not prime but it has abnormally few factors.

While I understand that you are being light-hearted, you understand that "solving chess" refers unambiguously to the abstract game of chess (or, to be precise, a version of it defined by the relevant rule set), which has no time limits, nothing happening off the board, but may include well-defined rules such as the option (or obligation) to claim a draw in an n-times repeated position, or when the 50 move rule applies.

No arbiters ever the chance to get involved any more than they do in the solution of tic-tac-toe  - the only laws involved are those that govern legal moving and results.

If I recall, the only appeal to game theory that has taken place in this forum was to a general theorem that applies to a class of games to which chess belongs. Given the definitions:

  1. A (pure) strategy for a side is defined as a procedure that generates a move for any legal position (note that a mixed strategy is one where it may vary the chosen move in a position, but we don't need these).
  2. The value of a strategy is the minimum of the values it achieves against all opposing strategies
  3. An optimal strategy for a side is a strategy that achieves the maximum of the values of all strategies for a side

then there exists an optimal strategy for each side and these strategies achieve the same result.

I'd like this theorem to be trivial, but when trying to show it was, I convinced myself it is not quite! The theorem seems to rely on the fact that every game is finite, for example.

My point is that "chess" generally refers to one of the games defined in the FIDE laws.

No, not when SOLVING chess. This is about the abstract game.

I believe that most of the contributors are referring to chess as defined in the FIDE laws, in which case I was pointing out the answer to OP's question is no; the FIDE game is insoluble. 

No reference to the rules of an abstract game have been posted. Would it have a dead position rule for example? Tablebase adjudication ignoring the 50 move rule at 6 or 7 men or not at all?

Because they allow for resignation and agreed draws

Both completely irrelevant to solving chess, just ways to save time in real, imperfect games before the rules decide the result.

More than that; if both players simultaneously resign, for instance, they both win. The resignation rule in that case does decide the result.

which occur asynchronoulsy with the moves and the results are are not prioritised in terms of win draw or loss either beteen themselves or with the results of completed moves, the possible results have no defined order. Is (win,win) for White better or worse than (win,draw) or (win,loss)?

There are exactly three results of a game

WIN > DRAW > LOSS

ok?

Ok in your abstract game probably (depends on the rules).

In what I think most people are referring to as "chess", not ok. What's the result if your opponent resigns simultaneously with you moving into a dead position. That should have occurred in practice (e.g. in  KNNKP). According to the FIDE rules you have won and the game is a draw.

You say:

"1. A (pure) strategy for a side is defined as a procedure that generates a move for any legal position ..."

Where do claims come in? Those are part of chess.

To solving chess, you can assume all claims occur by the player they favour. Equivalently, you can assume an automatic result. It's not about competitive play.

In the solution of your abstract game you can maybe assume that, but can you in solving? If you use a tablebase generation procedure the question is bypassed. If you use SF it only thinks it knows who is in favour and will repeat once whether or no if its evaluation for the position is better. So it could terminate a winning game in a draw. 

So far as I understand it @tygxc's method may take that as proof of a draw. Admittedly it's not actually solving.

A good strategy should generate a draw claim under the 50 move rule at some point if the opponent has a frustrated win. (It should also accept a draw offer in a losing position, but that would be extending the meaning of "solution".)

No, that would simply be part of the solution. A side aiming for a draw claims the draw when it occurs (or equivalently for solution, it is automatic).

A solution for a player is a strategy for achieving the best result. If the best result is a draw and the recommended moves lead to a win for the opponent that is frustrated by the 50 move rule or triple repetition rule singly or in combination should the strategy not also prompt a draw claim to avoid a loss? (If that's what you mean by automatic, isn't it what I said?)

2. The value of a strategy is the minimum of the values it achieves against all opposing strategies.

There can only be a minimum if the results are ordered. They're not under FIDE rules.

I have no idea what you are thinking about. WIN > DRAW > LOSS.

I'm thinking about FIDE chess. If the players simultaneously resign both players WIN (read the rules).  Is that better than WIN or worse?

Ergo game theory doesn't apply to chess.

A false conclusion based on erroneous thinking I can't fathom.

Not false. I'm using chess in the sense I think it's mostly used. Game theory doesn't apply to FIDE chess.

It could as you say be applied to abstract version of "chess" that differ only marginally from the FIDE games.

That's the chess that is relevant to solving chess. It ain't about imperfect tournament and match play (FIDE's preserve)

Agreed. But you still need to specify what's the chess.

But you define only a solution. If you want to propose finding a solution using existing software (as does @tygxc) the software will implement a concrete version of chess which also differs marginally from FIDE.

What you really mean is that FIDE differs from chess.

What I mean is that "chess" is being used in multiple senses and is a cause of some confusion. Some are taking it as FIDE competition rules, some as a to be defined abstract set of rules and some planning to use a GUI where you probably have to download the code to determine the rules. And all are different.