Careful. According to Allis', van den Herik's and other definitions, a weak solution provides the game-theoretic value of the initial position and a strategy to achieve at least that value. ...
My reading of Allis', van den Herik's definition is that the strategy provides that value, not at least that value.
The intention was probably at least that value, but the wording is not.
And the definition also doesn't call for the game-theoretic value of the initial position, only the strategy to achieve the value (which needn't be known).
Some more trolling going on here, trolls accusing each other of trolling and trolls putting their ownpersonal definitions above the established definitions.
Prof. van den Herik was a professional game theorist and he defined:
Ultra-weakly solved means that the game-theoretic value of the initial position has been
determined,
weakly solved means that for the initial position a strategy has been determined to achieve the game-theoretic value against any opposition, and
strongly solved is being used for a game for which such a strategy has been determined for all legal positions.
The game-theoretic value of a game is the outcome when all participants play optimally.
According to the trolls he was wrong.
GM Sveshnikov was a professional chess analyst, who taught upcoming masters how to analyse chess with computers. He said:
'Give me five years, good assistants and the latest computers
- I will bring all openings to technical endgames'
According to the trolls he was wrong despite facts and figures confirming he was right.
Why you should worry about Prof. van den Herik's definitions is mystifying because the only thing you do with them is quote them. Your proposals ignore them completely,
I've already pointed out the flaw in the definitions.
Firstly, the Allis definition that Prof. van den Herik quotes for "weakly solved" (what you promise to do) requires no limit on the time required to apply the strategy. If you want to solve, say, pre or post 2017 basic rules chess (with, say, the resignation and agreed draw rules excised to render them soluble) then according to that definition you're too late. Syzygy has already solved them (for any number of men - he's even given you a quick access tablebase for most relevant positions less than 8 men).
(That's not a problem from a game theory point of view, but obviously not appropriate for a solution in terms of OP's question.)
Secondly the definition doesn't say if the strategy is for one player or both. If, for example, the initial position happens to be a win for White and also forced selfmate for Black then a strategy for Black to mate himself would count as a solution according to that definition. But not according to the man in the street. If Black doesn't follow the strategy (which would obviously be his most sensible course of action) then it's just back to a normal (unsolved) game of chess.
Thirdly, if the initial position is a draw then a strategy for one player that achieves a win against some opposition and a draw against the rest would not count as a solution for that player; the strategy would need to provide a draw whatever. That would also be in conflict with the man in the street's idea of what constitutes a solution.
As for your facts and figures, you yourself are perfectly aware they confirm nothing of the kind, so your reference to trolls accusing people of trolling is at least partly apt.