Is Rook and King vs Rook and King a draw?

(Response to OP, not to Bobby)
Not always. Consider the following scenario, The losing side has made a valiant effort and could not hold a draw.

(Response to OP, not to Bobby)
Not always. Consider the following scenario, The losing side has made a valiant effort and could not hold a draw.
That’s more like a K + R vs. K + P and doesn’t really answer the spirit of the question. If that answer is acceptable, then this should be similar:
After 1…Rxh1 2. Rd8#. What the OP is asking is with both sides are on even footing, is it drawn? The answer is yes.
(Response to OP, not to Bobby)
Not always. Consider the following scenario, The losing side has made a valiant effort and could not hold a draw.
That’s more like a K + R vs. K + P and doesn’t really answer the spirit of the question. If that answer is acceptable, then this should be similar:
After 1…Rxh1 2. Rd8#. What the OP is asking is with both sides are on even footing, is it drawn? The answer is yes.
Actually, the OP did not make reference to the "equal footing" point.
(We both know he probably meant the equal footing part in "relative" terms and both sides would definitely not make progress, but then I am writing this in "absolute" terms)
He only wrote "Is it a draw when both players have a rook in an endgame and they play perfectly?". He did not mention that the positions must be equal at first, but he only asked for both sides to played perfectly from a position.
If I showed my position starting from the point there were two rooks on the board (without the prior moves), probably it's almost unguessable that one of the rooks would have come from a promoted pawn.
As a side note, he did not wrote "both players have a king and rook only each", so there could be other pieces on the board, so your position would also be valid!

Actually, the OP did not make reference to the "equal footing" point.
(We both know he probably meant the equal footing part in "relative" terms and both sides would definitely not make progress, but then I am writing this in "absolute" terms)
He only wrote "Is it a draw when both players have a rook in an endgame and they play perfectly?". He did not mention that the positions must be equal at first, but he only asked for both sides to played perfectly from a position.
If I showed my position starting from the point there were two rooks on the board (without the prior moves), probably it's almost unguessable that one of the rooks would have come from a promoted pawn.
As a side note, he did not wrote "both players have a king and rook only each", so there could be other pieces on the board, so your position would also be valid!
Yes, he didn’t outright say equal footing, but I thought it should be understood as such.
That was a good lesson in showing how it can be done in “absolute” terms. Thanks.