Is there any plausible argument for this being a case of "insufficient mating material"? - Chess Forums

Oct 17, 2025

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#1

After the black king takes on h1, it has been reported that this would be a case of "insufficient mating material" in some cases on Chess.com, though there is the obvious f2 by the knight on e4.

Is there any plausible argument for this being a case of "insufficient mating material"?

justbefair

Oct 18, 2025

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#2

Yes. It is easy to program a rule that says a king, two knights and no pawns versus king is a draw.

MrChatty

Oct 18, 2025

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#3

You mean there were games where that position occurred and these games ended up with "insufficient material"?

Fr3nchToastCrunch

Oct 18, 2025

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#4

In Lichess this would be a loss for Black because on there, the game will always continue until checkmate isn't even theoretically possible.

OTB, it's a draw unless checkmate is unavoidable. And since it is here, it would be a loss for Black.