True or False Chess is a Draw with Best Play from Both Sides

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Prometheus_Fuschs

You do not know if they change the game state, Fischer said the KGA was forced win for black and someone on a computer chess forum said the italian was busted in his and others books used for correspondance chess. KID is also under question by engine evals and Kasparov stopped using it after losing against Krammik with it.

 

What was sound may later on prove to be unsound.

lfPatriotGames
zborg wrote:
ponz111 wrote:

I believe from 62 years of playing chess and thousands of my own games that chess is a draw unless one side or the other makes a mistake.

I would suggest that out of billions of chess games that one cannot find even one game which was won or lost without one of the players making a mistake.  If anyone thinks they can find such a game please post it here.

I believe Ponz111's bold assertion (roughly 6 years ago) is eminently reasonable.

Has anyone yet posted an example of "that game," requested above?

"Put Up or Shut Up," one just might say. 

Is there an empiricist (anywhere) in this tread?? 

 

That's the whole point of questioning whether or not chess is a draw. Nobody can post such a game because it's never happened. At least not yet that we know of. Nobody can post such a game because no game of chess has ever existed where one side didn't make a mistake. So of course there will be wins and losses because of mistakes. All games that end in a draw are because of mistakes too.

So it' very reasonable to predict that chess is a draw. It's also very reasonable to predict that it's a forced win for one side. Right now we have no way of knowing which is true, so both are perfectly reasonable predictions.

Right now the question cant be answered because "best play" isn't very good. The only thing we know for a fact at the moment is that "best play" doesn't always create draws. 

najdorf96

Indeed. I still say false. There is no empirical evidence either way that supports the OP's assertion despite his reputation and experiences. His predictions are subjective. His supporters are as objective, abstract as we "naysayers ". A "silly billy". OF COURSE he is right. No one can produce said perfect or optimum game out of "billions" of games he originally challenged us to do. OH BUT WAIT! Only in HIS context of what a "perfect" game is, or "best play" by BOTH sides. Ok cool. "Imperialists" like me believe white wins. But hell no, those who believe otherwise, go with the flow, supposed non-subjective "observers " condescend us as empirical theorists! Hypocrisy much? Heh. Because of online anonymity methinks, respectfulness over righteousness should be our starting point in any discussion of an unproven, opinionated biased forum. More details of my opinions to come, but I just thought to clear the air abit.

najdorf96

DRAWS in WC matches. Indeed, there have been alot of them as "predicted" (more or less) but in what context? With "best play"? You who are in ponz's general consensus (abstract opinion) decide empirically if yeah, it is in-line with HIS (and yours I guess right?) context. That these draws produced was "empirical " evidence of "True or False: Chess is a Draw with Best Play". IF not, then I'M RIGHT THEN, if anything by virtue of me just saying HIS prediction hasn't come true YET? No. I will not deem it righteous in this particular context (his context) even though I possibly gained some credibility ~namely because I didn't believe in this context (for evidence/sufficient "proof") in the first place. I simply wanted to show the fallacy. Bold Italics, definitive conclusions, human observations to prove a point either way is...well, "silly billy" for all of us.

najdorf96

Indeed. Those of us who grew up in the era without engines, AlphaZero, opening explorer, social media in general; who truly benefited from it's merits even when it wasn't a thing, a trend and toiled endlessly for knowledge, played many many games on end almost obsessively, simply because it was sport, a hobby or sometimes, life could never imagine it was a game that could be mastered. It would never score us chicks back then, or help us with graduate studies but it meant more to us. Something we all in the chess fraternity know or going to realize...that is, we are special. We play a "game" that is unique. Never been solved. Talked about for Centuries. It never went out of style, in fact its tent grows and grows. *end of soliloquy *

najdorf96

MEANWHILE, BACK IN 2019: REAL-TIME. Indeed. Reading back a post to myself, I'm thinking, why is it that this person (disclaimer: not referring to the OP) has the belief that he is the only one capable of focused thought, understanding of said topic, ability to express their opinion just because another person's perspectives are different and contradictory in their own eyes. Why call it rubbish (and therefore inept)? Oops, Let that one out of the bag.😮

ChessProMasterGZ

Yeah I agree with the OP

tesasembiring

True, i got boring this kind of world champhion games.

ChessProMasterGZ
YBSV wrote:

Unless the opponent is crazy and simply resigns in a draw position

 

Or he might have some urgent commitment and his opponent refuses a draw.

LOl

Numquam
MARattigan schreef:
Optimissed wrote:
MARattigan wrote:
Optimissed wrote:

Yes, you understand that despite Champagne and advanced years, you can't really compete. That must seem like a problem but just accept that you aren't here to compete but to learn. All will be well. Exponential series can be elusive. At first they seem cool but take your eye off them and they get out of hand. Then the fish really jump out of the basket.

Exponential series normally refers to 𝟏+𝔁/𝟏!+𝔁²/𝟐!+𝔁³/𝟑!+ and I always thought it was very well behaved. You're a little skimpy on the details of how this relates to OP's question. Perhaps if you elaborated it would make it clearer. 

I think you may have failed to fully take into account the formula 𝐎𝐩ₜ(𝒊ₘ) = 𝝅.>>

Broadly, an exponential series is any series that increases (or decreases) exponentially. It ought to be obvious (but it obviously isn't) that the possible variations of moves in a game of chess form such a series.

Don't worry about it.

If by "the possible variations of moves in a game of chess" you mean the number of different legal games of length 𝓷 ply (let's call it 𝓰ₙ) then you're right that it obviously isn't obvious to me that 𝓰ₙ is an exponential series. In fact it's obvious to me that it isn't.

In an exponential series 𝓰₁,𝓰₂,𝓰ₙ,…, 𝓰₁/𝓰 must be constant. By inspection 𝓰₁=𝟸𝟶, 𝓰=𝟸𝟶² but 𝓰₃ >𝟸𝟶³. The series is therefore not exponential.

That applies whether or not the 75 move rule is in force. If the 75 move rule is in force then it's also obvious that 𝓰=𝟶 whenever 𝓷>2.75(16.5+30)=16,500.

But mainly you still haven't explained what this has to do with OP's question.

 

I think both of you mean exponential growth. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exponential_growth. Optimissed seems to suggest that the exponential series diverges which is wrong. The exponential series always converges to exp(x). It converges, because g(k+1)/g(k)<a<1 for k large enough. It is in fact x/(k+1) which converges to zero. And btw @Optimissed your 'mathematical proofs' are hilarious.

Prometheus_Fuschs
Optimissed escribió:
Prometheus_Fuschs wrote:
Optimissed escribió:
zborg wrote:
ponz111 wrote:

I believe from 62 years of playing chess and thousands of my own games that chess is a draw unless one side or the other makes a mistake.

I would suggest that out of billions of chess games that one cannot find even one game which was won or lost without one of the players making a mistake.  If anyone thinks they can find such a game please post it here.

I believe Ponz111's bold assertion (roughly 6 years ago) is eminently reasonable.

Has anyone yet posted an example of "that game," requested above?

"Put Up or Shut Up," one just might say. 

Is there an empiricist (anywhere) in this tread?? 

 

The empiricists are all believers that one day, a forced win will be found, so they're withholding judgement until that day. I'm a rationalist as regards this subject. Empiricism isn't always appropriate if there are no observations possible. After all, who knows what perfect play is?

You don't need to show the perfect game to prove the game state of the initial position in chess.

I realised that I don't have a clue what you're talking about there. Then I realised that you don't have a clue what you're talking about either. There's no point discussing this with people who cannot focus and who keep reversing what they are saying to suit the opportunity. There's no point in discussing this any more, for me, that is. I hope you all enjoy yourselves talking rubbish to one-another.

What I said is very simple, it's not my problem if you can't grasp it.

Numquam

If you have a proof of the game state of the initial position, then doesn't that mean that you can determine if a game is perfect or not? It is basically the same thing.

Thee_Ghostess_Lola

the problem is theres 4-sides.

Numquam
Optimissed schreef:
Numquam wrote:
MARattigan schreef:
Optimissed wrote:
MARattigan wrote:
Optimissed wrote:

Yes, you understand that despite Champagne and advanced years, you can't really compete. That must seem like a problem but just accept that you aren't here to compete but to learn. All will be well. Exponential series can be elusive. At first they seem cool but take your eye off them and they get out of hand. Then the fish really jump out of the basket.

Exponential series normally refers to 𝟏+𝔁/𝟏!+𝔁²/𝟐!+𝔁³/𝟑!+ and I always thought it was very well behaved. You're a little skimpy on the details of how this relates to OP's question. Perhaps if you elaborated it would make it clearer. 

I think you may have failed to fully take into account the formula 𝐎𝐩ₜ(𝒊ₘ) = 𝝅.>>

Broadly, an exponential series is any series that increases (or decreases) exponentially. It ought to be obvious (but it obviously isn't) that the possible variations of moves in a game of chess form such a series.

Don't worry about it.

If by "the possible variations of moves in a game of chess" you mean the number of different legal games of length 𝓷 ply (let's call it 𝓰ₙ) then you're right that it obviously isn't obvious to me that 𝓰ₙ is an exponential series. In fact it's obvious to me that it isn't.

In an exponential series 𝓰₁,𝓰₂,𝓰ₙ,…, 𝓰₁/𝓰 must be constant. By inspection 𝓰₁=𝟸𝟶, 𝓰=𝟸𝟶² but 𝓰₃ >𝟸𝟶³. The series is therefore not exponential.

That applies whether or not the 75 move rule is in force. If the 75 move rule is in force then it's also obvious that 𝓰=𝟶 whenever 𝓷>2.75(16.5+30)=16,500.

But mainly you still haven't explained what this has to do with OP's question.

 

I think both of you mean exponential growth. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exponential_growth. Optimissed seems to suggest that the exponential series diverges which is wrong. The exponential series always converges to exp(x). It converges, because g(k+1)/g(k)<a<1 for k large enough. It is in fact x/(k+1) which converges to zero. And btw @Optimissed your 'mathematical proofs' are hilarious.

Do stop talking crap. If you had any real criticisms you would be knowledgeable enough to state them specifically. I don't believe you understand what you're reading. I think that the fact you can't put anything into words speaks volumes and you clearly don't know what exponential series are.

I have got better things to do then go through a 'proof' which has flaws in almost every sentence. In short it is based on too many assumptions. If you take away those assumptions the whole proof falls apart. And really you shouldn't pretend to know anything about mathematics. You can google the definition of exponential series yourself.

Numquam
Optimissed schreef:
Numquam wrote:
MARattigan schreef:
Optimissed wrote:
MARattigan wrote:
Optimissed wrote:

Yes, you understand that despite Champagne and advanced years, you can't really compete. That must seem like a problem but just accept that you aren't here to compete but to learn. All will be well. Exponential series can be elusive. At first they seem cool but take your eye off them and they get out of hand. Then the fish really jump out of the basket.

Exponential series normally refers to 𝟏+𝔁/𝟏!+𝔁²/𝟐!+𝔁³/𝟑!+ and I always thought it was very well behaved. You're a little skimpy on the details of how this relates to OP's question. Perhaps if you elaborated it would make it clearer. 

I think you may have failed to fully take into account the formula 𝐎𝐩ₜ(𝒊ₘ) = 𝝅.>>

Broadly, an exponential series is any series that increases (or decreases) exponentially. It ought to be obvious (but it obviously isn't) that the possible variations of moves in a game of chess form such a series.

Don't worry about it.

If by "the possible variations of moves in a game of chess" you mean the number of different legal games of length 𝓷 ply (let's call it 𝓰ₙ) then you're right that it obviously isn't obvious to me that 𝓰ₙ is an exponential series. In fact it's obvious to me that it isn't.

In an exponential series 𝓰₁,𝓰₂,𝓰ₙ,…, 𝓰₁/𝓰 must be constant. By inspection 𝓰₁=𝟸𝟶, 𝓰=𝟸𝟶² but 𝓰₃ >𝟸𝟶³. The series is therefore not exponential.

That applies whether or not the 75 move rule is in force. If the 75 move rule is in force then it's also obvious that 𝓰=𝟶 whenever 𝓷>2.75(16.5+30)=16,500.

But mainly you still haven't explained what this has to do with OP's question.

 

I think both of you mean exponential growth. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exponential_growth. Optimissed seems to suggest that the exponential series diverges which is wrong. The exponential series always converges to exp(x). It converges, because g(k+1)/g(k)<a<1 for k large enough. It is in fact x/(k+1) which converges to zero. And btw @Optimissed your 'mathematical proofs' are hilarious.>>>>

I didn't offer a mathematical proof. I explained the overview, on which such a proof must be based. If you believe that there's a forced win in chess from move one, then prove it ..... if you had any real criticisms, you would be knowledgeable enough to state them specifically.

I don't believe you understand what you're reading and you clearly don't know what exponential series are.

One more thing. The proof you gave is also based on the concept 'advantage'. 'Advantage' is very subjective and used by beings who cannot play perfect chess. Objectively a position is either a win for one side or a draw. So a mathematical proof would not contain the term 'advantage'.

A better question would be: what do you think an exponential series is? What do you not understand? Clearly you mean exponential growth.

MARattigan
Thee_Ghostess_Lola wrote:

the problem is theres 4-sides.

Well there's White and Black that I know of. What are the other two?

MARattigan
Numquam wrote:
Optimissed schreef:
Numquam wrote:
MARattigan schreef:
Optimissed wrote:
MARattigan wrote:
Optimissed wrote:

Yes, you understand that despite Champagne and advanced years, you can't really compete. That must seem like a problem but just accept that you aren't here to compete but to learn. All will be well. Exponential series can be elusive. At first they seem cool but take your eye off them and they get out of hand. Then the fish really jump out of the basket.

Exponential series normally refers to 𝟏+𝔁/𝟏!+𝔁²/𝟐!+𝔁³/𝟑!+ and I always thought it was very well behaved. You're a little skimpy on the details of how this relates to OP's question. Perhaps if you elaborated it would make it clearer. 

I think you may have failed to fully take into account the formula 𝐎𝐩ₜ(𝒊ₘ) = 𝝅.>>

Broadly, an exponential series is any series that increases (or decreases) exponentially. It ought to be obvious (but it obviously isn't) that the possible variations of moves in a game of chess form such a series.

Don't worry about it.

If by "the possible variations of moves in a game of chess" you mean the number of different legal games of length 𝓷 ply (let's call it 𝓰ₙ) then you're right that it obviously isn't obvious to me that 𝓰ₙ is an exponential series. In fact it's obvious to me that it isn't.

In an exponential series 𝓰₁,𝓰₂,𝓰ₙ,…, 𝓰₁/𝓰 must be constant. By inspection 𝓰₁=𝟸𝟶, 𝓰=𝟸𝟶² but 𝓰₃ >𝟸𝟶³. The series is therefore not exponential.

That applies whether or not the 75 move rule is in force. If the 75 move rule is in force then it's also obvious that 𝓰=𝟶 whenever 𝓷>2.75(16.5+30)=16,500.

But mainly you still haven't explained what this has to do with OP's question.

 

I think both of you mean exponential growth. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exponential_growth. Optimissed seems to suggest that the exponential series diverges which is wrong. The exponential series always converges to exp(x). It converges, because g(k+1)/g(k)<a<1 for k large enough. It is in fact x/(k+1) which converges to zero. And btw @Optimissed your 'mathematical proofs' are hilarious.>>>>

I didn't offer a mathematical proof. I explained the overview, on which such a proof must be based. If you believe that there's a forced win in chess from move one, then prove it ..... if you had any real criticisms, you would be knowledgeable enough to state them specifically.

I don't believe you understand what you're reading and you clearly don't know what exponential series are.

One more thing. The proof you gave is also based on the concept 'advantage'. 'Advantage' is very subjective and used by beings who cannot play perfect chess. Objectively a position is either a win for one side or a draw. So a mathematical proof would not contain the term 'advantage'.

A better question would be: what do you think an exponential series is? What do you not understand? Clearly you mean exponential growth.

 

From Merriam-Webster:

Definition of exponential series

 

a series derived from the development of exponential expressionsspecifically the fundamental expansion ex = 1 + x/1 + x2/2! + x3/3! + …, absolutely convergent for all finite values of x
 
(But the typesetting has suffered somewhat in the copy and paste - it looks a lot more like what I posted in the original.)
 
I used @Optimissed's definition (in huge text) so far as I could understood it in my second post quoted. I took it to mean a sequence of the form 𝓪𝓫ⁿ. 
zborg

What mindless BS -- repeatedly over-posting that mathematical gibberish above.

Suggest you stick to English (not math pseudo-proofs), following 2600+ posts into this nutty thread.  grin.png

MARattigan
ponz111 wrote:

actually if you go 4 moves--2 moves each side---most move sequences would be moves which do not

change the theoretical result of the game.  It takes a lot to turn a game from a draw to a loss and that is why GMs rarely lose [except when they play me.]

I agree that per the new rules of chess you must eventually  show the win to be playing perfectly in your sense.

 

1. d4  Nf6  2. h3  h6  3. c3  c6  is optimum  chess in that neither side has made a move  which will change the theoretical out come of the game.  

 

1. d3  e5  2. d4  I used to play.  1. a3   Nc6  2. g3  probably a draw.  

I actually originally posted "7 moves", but I meant "ply" and switched it to "4 moves", meaning really 4 moves by White.

In terms of OP's question, which is not about practical play, it always takes just one move to turn a game from a draw to a loss.

I'm not convinced by your assertion that most four ply sequences would not change the theoretical result. You don't give any reasons nor mention the 75 move rule.  Are you asserting this irrespective of whether the 75 move rule is in force? There is one four ply sequence resulting in mate, but whether this changes the theoretical result of the game in either case I couldn't say.

Thee_Ghostess_Lola
MARattigan wrote:
Thee_Ghostess_Lola wrote:

the problem is theres 4-sides.

Well there's White and Black that I know of. What are the other two?

well theres neutral left and then the clock. i think.

(only cuz its the clock and a brain box that keeps it frumma draw. are we not taking in these abstracts ?)