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Why Does the King Move OVer?

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Avatar of Master_Po
Master_Po
Jul 30, 2013
0
#1

Excuse my ignorance, but i've seen this move many times and don't know why the king, after castled, moves over, seemingly giving up a tempo.  Here's an example:  1. e4 e5 2. Nf3 Nc6 3. d4exd4 4. Nxd4 Bc5 5. Nb3Bb4+ 6. Bd2 a5 7. a3Bxd2+ 8. Qxd2 Nf69. Nc3 O-O 10. O-O-O d611. Kb1 

Thanks for the help.  

Avatar of LelaCrosby
LelaCrosby
Jul 30, 2013
0
#2

I'm guessing you don't see this when it's castled king-side.  The king is not as exposed after it moves over.

Avatar of Master_Po
Master_Po
Jul 30, 2013
0
#3

There's no dark squared bishop to pin white's Q.   Exposed to what?  And yes, i often see it on the other side too. 


Avatar of Master_Po
Master_Po
Jul 30, 2013
0
#4

Thanks ICCF IM Champ. That helps.  Nice game BTW. 

Avatar of batgirl
batgirl
Jul 30, 2013
0
#5

Normally when the K moves over after 0-0-0, it's to protect either the 1 or h pawn. Since the a pawn is on a3, it looks like a wasted move to me.

Avatar of LelaCrosby
LelaCrosby
Jul 31, 2013
0
#6

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