[ 3. d4 ]...i don't know what it means?
Apparently memory has run out of space. You said your comment was in relation to a comment made by someone about 3. d4. That someone was me, proposing 3. d4 as opposed to 3. Bb5, and you mention an irrelevant win, as if to show it is somewhat ‘wrong’, even though Kasparov’s revival of the Scotch proved the contrary...
Both 3. Bb5 and 3. d4 are perfect moves because they do not change the theoretical outcome of a chess game.
I did not try to use 3. d4 "to show it is somewhat wrong" You are using "strawman" here which is a logical fallacy. Strawman is the attempt to refute an opponent's argument by distorting what your opponent says.
The fact that both Kasparov and i both did well with that move does not prove it is a move which leads to a win by force.
Ponz's view is perhaps best considered from the point of view of the scientific method. In lieu of a mathematical proof about perfect chess, all we have is empirical data that is inadequate to deduce an answer, but might have some value via INDUCTION, the method of reasoning used in the scientific method. As such, Ponz might say that his view that chess is a draw is a hypothesis that is (in some loosely defined statistical way) consistent with the data (consisting of games played between humans and between computers none of which is perfect but which have significant ability to pick good moves more often than by random selection, plus tablebases of precise information about very restricted positions).
It would be nice to express this as a Bayesian belief, but it seems difficult to make this substantial, as the quality of the evidence (apart from tablebases) is unclear (and tablebases don't make it much clearer).
One advantage of the question is that there are only three possible conjectures. This makes the chance of being right higher than in a scientific context where "right" may not even necessarily exist.