(1+1)/♾️ differs from (1/♾️)+(1/♾️) Part 2

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Avatar of One_Zeroth

For

(1+1)/♾️ shall equal 2/♾️ equals 1/♾️

While (1/♾️)+(1/♾️) is (♾️+♾️)/♾️ is ♾️/♾️

Avatar of batmann11111

This never had any meaningful consequences because people kept arguing that infinity was an epic concept.

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2/♾️ is +positive x/♾️ while ♾️/♾️ is still any positive divided by ♾️

So they are technically same.

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Well 2/♾️ is any positive infinitesimal, only.

While ♾️/♾️ is any finite positive too.

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1/♾️=0

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Re: #5

Re read #1, carefully.

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BatemanWayne_Freud wrote:

1/♾️=0

Demolishes the above post. Every real number divided into infinity parts equals 0. Therefore, the above post is wrong.

Avatar of Roxas_971

Hum

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Nani ?

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#7

Nope, #1 demonstrates that 1/♾️ and -1/♾️ differ so much

Avatar of TACOC4T471
Of course it’s zeroith who posted this