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Jul 28, 2024
0
#86
When you win a game, it's not only about you played well, it even means your opponent played too bad than you
Jul 28, 2024
0
#88
“RoadOcean wrote:
what is infinite divided by infinite
Is it 1 or infinite?”
(Intro;Sunday, July 8, 2024|6:34 P.M.|Philippines, West Kamias, Q.C.)
Hmm… I would say, with educated guess, would probably be neither of them. But of course, it will be similar to both.
My proof for this unofficial theory is may be wrong, for I am just starting as grade 6. But here it goes.
(Paragraph1; 6:42 P.M.)
Normally, when dividing two whole numbers, when they have the same digits, the quotient will always end up as 1, right? Then infinite ➗ infinite should perhaps be 1! But, see here, infinity in itself is quite confusing, since it is not a whole number, yet it is not a decimal; and at the same time, it is both. My theory/educated guess for this? Well… that would take, in estimate, a whole 560+ years of research in order to find out. Anyway, as you have learned in grade 4-5 in measuring the area and circumference of a circle using R (radius) or D (diameter), pi is a digit used in measuring it using 2piR (2 x 3.14 x R) or piD (pi x D). Although 3.14 is what was used here, the real digits of pi are 3.1415963… I believe. The number is low, yet never ending. Now, since pi is closest to infinity, I decided to try this formula:
(Formula; 6:53 P.M.)
CoU x (first 14159 digits of pi + CoU) = X
CoU=(DoU x 3.14)
DoU=Diameter of Universe
X➗CoU= y
(Paragraph2; 6:59 P.M.)
Now that the formula is finished, (y) is probably the answer to your question, RoadOcean. With further study and once the DoU has been found out, (y) will be solved.
(End; 7:01 P.M.)
Again, this is simply a dumb, low, unofficial theory, but I hope this helps your question for now!
what is infinite divided by infinite
Is it 1 or infinite?”
(Intro;Sunday, July 8, 2024|6:34 P.M.|Philippines, West Kamias, Q.C.)
Hmm… I would say, with educated guess, would probably be neither of them. But of course, it will be similar to both.
My proof for this unofficial theory is may be wrong, for I am just starting as grade 6. But here it goes.
(Paragraph1; 6:42 P.M.)
Normally, when dividing two whole numbers, when they have the same digits, the quotient will always end up as 1, right? Then infinite ➗ infinite should perhaps be 1! But, see here, infinity in itself is quite confusing, since it is not a whole number, yet it is not a decimal; and at the same time, it is both. My theory/educated guess for this? Well… that would take, in estimate, a whole 560+ years of research in order to find out. Anyway, as you have learned in grade 4-5 in measuring the area and circumference of a circle using R (radius) or D (diameter), pi is a digit used in measuring it using 2piR (2 x 3.14 x R) or piD (pi x D). Although 3.14 is what was used here, the real digits of pi are 3.1415963… I believe. The number is low, yet never ending. Now, since pi is closest to infinity, I decided to try this formula:
(Formula; 6:53 P.M.)
CoU x (first 14159 digits of pi + CoU) = X
CoU=(DoU x 3.14)
DoU=Diameter of Universe
X➗CoU= y
(Paragraph2; 6:59 P.M.)
Now that the formula is finished, (y) is probably the answer to your question, RoadOcean. With further study and once the DoU has been found out, (y) will be solved.
(End; 7:01 P.M.)
Again, this is simply a dumb, low, unofficial theory, but I hope this helps your question for now!
False, I went to one and there where pawns in the window
I did
Jul 28, 2024
0
#96
AerisChua wrote:
“RoadOcean wrote:
what is infinite divided by infinite
Is it 1 or infinite?”
(Intro;Sunday, July 8, 2024|6:34 P.M.|Philippines, West Kamias, Q.C.)
Hmm… I would say, with educated guess, would probably be neither of them. But of course, it will be similar to both.
My proof for this unofficial theory is may be wrong, for I am just starting as grade 6. But here it goes.
(Paragraph1; 6:42 P.M.)
Normally, when dividing two whole numbers, when they have the same digits, the quotient will always end up as 1, right? Then infinite ➗ infinite should perhaps be 1! But, see here, infinity in itself is quite confusing, since it is not a whole number, yet it is not a decimal; and at the same time, it is both. My theory/educated guess for this? Well… that would take, in estimate, a whole 560+ years of research in order to find out. Anyway, as you have learned in grade 4-5 in measuring the area and circumference of a circle using R (radius) or D (diameter), pi is a digit used in measuring it using 2piR (2 x 3.14 x R) or piD (pi x D). Although 3.14 is what was used here, the real digits of pi are 3.1415963… I believe. The number is low, yet never ending. Now, since pi is closest to infinity, I decided to try this formula:
(Formula; 6:53 P.M.)
CoU x (first 14159 digits of pi + CoU) = X
CoU=(DoU x 3.14)
DoU=Diameter of Universe
X➗CoU= y
(Paragraph2; 6:59 P.M.)
Now that the formula is finished, (y) is probably the answer to your question, RoadOcean. With further study and once the DoU has been found out, (y) will be solved.
(End; 7:01 P.M.)
Again, this is simply a dumb, low, unofficial theory, but I hope this helps your question for now!
what is infinite divided by infinite
Is it 1 or infinite?”
(Intro;Sunday, July 8, 2024|6:34 P.M.|Philippines, West Kamias, Q.C.)
Hmm… I would say, with educated guess, would probably be neither of them. But of course, it will be similar to both.
My proof for this unofficial theory is may be wrong, for I am just starting as grade 6. But here it goes.
(Paragraph1; 6:42 P.M.)
Normally, when dividing two whole numbers, when they have the same digits, the quotient will always end up as 1, right? Then infinite ➗ infinite should perhaps be 1! But, see here, infinity in itself is quite confusing, since it is not a whole number, yet it is not a decimal; and at the same time, it is both. My theory/educated guess for this? Well… that would take, in estimate, a whole 560+ years of research in order to find out. Anyway, as you have learned in grade 4-5 in measuring the area and circumference of a circle using R (radius) or D (diameter), pi is a digit used in measuring it using 2piR (2 x 3.14 x R) or piD (pi x D). Although 3.14 is what was used here, the real digits of pi are 3.1415963… I believe. The number is low, yet never ending. Now, since pi is closest to infinity, I decided to try this formula:
(Formula; 6:53 P.M.)
CoU x (first 14159 digits of pi + CoU) = X
CoU=(DoU x 3.14)
DoU=Diameter of Universe
X➗CoU= y
(Paragraph2; 6:59 P.M.)
Now that the formula is finished, (y) is probably the answer to your question, RoadOcean. With further study and once the DoU has been found out, (y) will be solved.
(End; 7:01 P.M.)
Again, this is simply a dumb, low, unofficial theory, but I hope this helps your question for now!
Sorry, I was on mobile here, @RoadOcean. Here, I can quote now
Why the Hero spares the villain for Mercy "because he Is not mean After all" and before kills all his minions?
*Relieved*