Is (1/infinity) the same as (-1/infinity)?
Okay, so: a=1/∞ -a=-1/∞ Let's suppose that they are indeed equal. Then: a=-a We now divide by a on both sides Either a is zero or a ≠-a We know that the limit of 1/X varying X is 0. So we conclude that 1/∞=0 which means that 1/∞=-1/∞
Nope we cannot conclude this.
"a=-a We now divide by a on both sides Either a is zero or a ≠-a We know that the limit of 1/X varying X is 0"
Nope, that is your uninferred jump, from the evidence stated above.
It ain't true.
Nope we cannot conclude this.
"a=-a We now divide by a on both sides Either a is zero or a ≠-a We know that the limit of 1/X varying X is 0"
Nope, that is your uninferred jump, from the evidence stated above.
It ain't true.
Updated
Nope
For 1(1/infinity) which is infinity/1
While 1/(-1/infinity) is -infinity/1
Showing that they do indeed differ.
No one here has refuted this original statement.
Nope
For 1(1/infinity) which is infinity/1
While 1/(-1/infinity) is -infinity/1
Showing that they do indeed differ.