[Two illegal positions, one obvious, one less obvious]
how is first one illegal
Think about how the white king made it to the 8th rank.
[Two illegal positions, one obvious, one less obvious]
how is first one illegal
Think about how the white king made it to the 8th rank.
First one is legal.
Art 3.5 is: When making these moves, the bishop, rook or queen may not move over any intervening pieces.
It says you can't move over, but it doesn't say you can't move round.
First one is legal.
Art 3.5 is: When making these moves, the bishop, rook or queen may not move over any intervening pieces.
It says you can't move over. It doesn't say you can't move round.
-_-
legal?
Your FEN says White has the move, but Black is in check.
Legal if Black has the move.
white to move
This is possible because of 1. Nf3 e6 Ng1
After those moves, it's Black to move.
oh
In compositions, the FEN is ignored. One side needs to have the move if the composer stipulates it.
But don't compositions also have to be legal positions? If so we should shut up shop.
Ideally, compositions should be illegal but look like they might be legal in an illegal position contest. The composer should state if there's a side to move requirement. Of course, anyone who wants to shut up shop is free to do so. Participation is voluntary.
I think it's been a week since last submission?
It's certainly illegal. Black still has his whole army and White has a doubled pawn.
legal?
Your FEN says White has the move, but Black is in check.
Legal if Black has the move.
black is in checkmate
Your FEN says White has the move, but Black is in check.
Legal if Black has the move.
black is in checkmate
But checkmate is not illegal. The checkmated side always has the move.
legal?
Your FEN says White has the move, but Black is in check.
Legal if Black has the move.
black is in checkmate
I'd noticed that. That's why I said "has the move" rather than "to play".
Art. 1.3 says: A player is said to ‘have the move’ when his opponent’s move has been ‘made’. (The term "made" is defined in art. 4.) So if, in a legitimate game, a player is checkmated, that player has the move, but is not to play since the game is terminated.
In an illegal position it can't be assumed that if one (or both) players is check(mat)ed he has the move.
[Two illegal positions, one obvious, one less obvious]
how is first one illegal