Can someone tell me why this is considered a blunder? It says the ideal move would be: (25... Rxd426. Qc8+Nf827. Nxd4Bxd428. Qf5Ne429. Qf4Bxc530. Qf3)
Which I just don't understand. I'm not up in material, he's still got his rook defending on the back rank, why is this ideal? I partly pay for a diamond membership to get the analysis, but most times there are moves I just cannot understand. Perhaps someone can help explain to me?
Sorry if I've not done this correctly. My first time posting. Thanks
You are up in material and Ra1 gives up a Bishop for nothing after Rxa1 Bxa1 Qa8+, while Rxd4 trades a rook for a knight and 2pawns and gives you a pass pawn