There comes a point in a chess game where one side can "theoritically" defeat the other side no matter how well the opponent plays. But the player needs to play accurately.
Why you need to use term like "retard" is beyond me. You sound very insulting. I appologise if you are actually retarded.
Well thats a question for chess theoreticians (I guess) but it came to me after wining a game against a much weaker oponent than me, I knew in advance he was weaker and played carelessly ended having 3 pawns a rook and a knight and mated him having a rook a knight 2 bishops and 3 more pawns....
but anyway instead of analising the game I give you an imaginary example so that you can better understand what I mean...
lets say an intelligent person plays against a retard (its an imaginary example so I dont offent anybody :P I also dont hate people with mental dissabilities and the word i used does not relate to them)
For example:
Ok so as you can see if your intelligence is much higher than your oponents you can still win the game no matter the reality of the board.
So my question is this: Is there an upper limit to that or after a point (due to determinism) your fate is sealed no matter how much smarter you are?
I am not talking about the average joe here.. again my question is purely theoretical (lets say a player that has 3000 elo 200 IQ against a a player with 2000 elo and 120 IQ)
In other words if someone has "thrice" as much intelligence (incerted a random analogy here suppose thats this is the needed difference for one to be vastly supperior than an other in chess) as an other player will the intelligent one have it as easy to win the less intelligent one not matter their actual level in chess?
for example I think I cant loose any match against a 6 year old that barely understands the moves no matter how much material I would be down... and ok lets say that I cant do that I believe that nakamura for example could claim that... but what about nakamura vs a guy that has the same difference as nakamura has to the 6 year old... could he claim the same? or is there a limit (due to positional limitations and the fact that now the lesser player knows a little more about how to move and defend/attack)
Of course everybodys opinion is apriciated but I believe that this question (no matter how stupid it sounds) could be answered only by a chess theoritecian and I hope someone who is would post his 2 cents about that as well :)