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INTERMEDIATE Puzzle: Mate in Two

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Avatar of Raito
Raito
Jun 10, 2008
0
#1

 

 
It's easy for me lol... 

 


Avatar of Jippo
Jippo
Jun 10, 2008
0
#2
Raito, can you check the puzzle? I think it can not be solved in two moves.
Avatar of Raito
Raito
Jun 10, 2008
0
#3
Sorry, the king position is conversed... now edited... thanks for your advise...
Avatar of tbuk
tbuk
Jun 10, 2008
0
#4

1. Qg2 ...

2. Qb3#

 

Unless black uses moves his bishop and frees up a5. Nethertheless, it's still a quick mate. 


Avatar of Knightshade-inactive
Knightshade-inactive
Jun 10, 2008
0
#5
Qg8 is the first move. second Qb3. If black blocks with the pawn after the first move then Qf8 is mate
Avatar of Raito
Raito
Jun 10, 2008
0
#6

@tbuk: I bet you mean Qb7... if Qb7 then Bb6 and it's not mate in two anymore...Laughing

 

@Knightshade: 1. Qg8 then Ka3 and it's not mate in two anymore...Laughing


Avatar of x-5058622868
x-5058622868
Jun 10, 2008
0
#7
Bd7
Avatar of Raito
Raito
Jun 10, 2008
0
#8
benws wrote:

Raito- i said if 1...B moves 2 Qa4#. that means anywhere the bishop moves, 2 Qa4# if mate. just to make you happy, i can write it as 1...Bb6/c7/d8 2 Qa4#.

 1. Qa6 then c4 and it's not mate in two anymore...Laughing


Avatar of Raito
Raito
Jun 10, 2008
0
#9
Sunshiny correct! Bd7!!
Avatar of Raito
Raito
Jun 10, 2008
0
#10

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The variations:

1. Bd7!! c4

(1... Bb6 2. Qa4#)

(1... Ka3 2. Qxa5#)

(1... Kc4 2. Qe4#)

2. Qf8# 

 

 


Avatar of tbuk
tbuk
Jun 10, 2008
0
#11
Ooh I see it now. A few variations in there. Tongue out
Avatar of AquaMan
AquaMan
Jun 10, 2008
0
#12

I coudn't find the solution on my own.  What would you say is the underlying idea here?

After looking at the solution I would say the underlying idea is to recognize that any move that black makes weakens his position.  So white makes a time wasting move with 1.Bd7 and gives the move back to black.  Then any move that black makes is mate in one. 

edit: checking this out further, 1.Bd7 isn't purely a time wasting move.  It give the white Q another diagonal, for example.  OK, is there any underlying idea here, or is it just a matter of recognizing from all the possibilities, the two move combination that get's it done?


Avatar of rhoalev
rhoalev
Jun 10, 2008
0
#13
Raito wrote:

@Knightshade: 1. Qg8 then Ka3 and it's not mate in two anymore...

If Qg8 and black moves Ka3, then Qb3 for mate. Still mate in 2.

Furthermore, the solution showing Bd7 does not lead to mate in 2 if black follows by any move other than c4


Avatar of AquaMan
AquaMan
Jun 10, 2008
0
#14
rhoalev wrote

Furthermore, the solution showing Bd7 does not lead to mate in 2 if black follows by any move other than c4

 I think 1.Bd7 is forced mate in 2.

1. Bd7 Kc4 (1... Ka3 2. Qxa5#) (1... Bb6 2. Qa4#) (1... c4 2. Qf8#) 2. Qe4#
Avatar of Raito
Raito
Jun 10, 2008
0
#15

@rhoalev: Sorry, after Qg8 then Bb6 and it's not mate in two anymore...Laughing If Black play c4 then Qf8 mate.

 

@AquaMan: that's the right answer.