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(1/♾️) differs from (-1/♾️)! Part 2

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Avatar of Intellectual_26
Intellectual_26
Feb 5, 2023
0
#1

Since (1/♾️)^-1 equals ♾️/1, while

(-1/♾️)^-1 equals - ♾️/1

The Absolute Value of (1/♾️) is the 2nd smallest quotient before 0.

Avatar of Intellectual_26
Intellectual_26
Feb 5, 2023
0
#2
zlbaltazar wrote:
Wat

1/♾️ differs from 0, as does -1/♾️. 

For if they were the same, Thier multiplicative inverse would be the same.

Avatar of Intellectual_26
Intellectual_26
Feb 5, 2023
0
#3
zlbaltazar wrote:
Oooooooohhh

Oooooo, Ahhhhh

Avatar of Knight_king1014
Knight_king1014
Feb 5, 2023
0
#4

Yes... Why do you post obvious stuff here? Don't waste your time on such easy to prove things. Maybe you can solve something no one has ever been able to solve.

Avatar of Intellectual_26
Intellectual_26
Feb 6, 2023
0
#5

My Friend,

It's a "Theoretical Novelty" in Maths!

Avatar of Lincoy3304
Lincoy3304
Feb 6, 2023
0
#6
Intellectual, like Knight King Said, this is trivial stuff. Stop spending your time on your time on trivial things and start spending it on more complex things. Infinite set theory is a well understood and almost complete set of mathematics
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