Hey Sherlock, your own Wikipedia link clearly states that the Miller test requires that all 3 need to be true to be considered obscene...so your additions of "yes, then it's defined as obscene" on the first two points are completely false. Your implication is that each of the 3 defines obscenity, but that only with all 3 does it meet the test of being obscene at a level that is "illegal". That's BS.
My dear sir, please try to restrain yourself, we are simply engaged in testing the premise of some ideas, its not a personal thing, please lets not get personal.
There's nothing personal about it, nor am I "unrestrained". I'm just trying to get through your thick wall of delusion regarding the plausibility of your premise. If you were to actually upset me, which is unlikely given the ridiculous nature of your claims (who would take this seriously enough to get upset?)...I'll be sure to let you know.
It's curious why you bothered to keep trying to make serious arguments afterwards though.